Q: What is the anatomic position? A: The standard reference position of the body used in anatomy.
Q: What position means above? A: Superior
Q: What position means below? A: Inferior
Q: What position means facing forward? A: Anterior
Q: What position means toward the back? A: Posterior
Q: What position means towards the midline? A: Medial
Q: What position means away from the midline? A: Lateral
Practice more using this 2024 exam set: HESI A2 (Anatomy & Physiology) V1, V2 Exam Questions With Verified Answers
Q: What position means further from the point of attachment? A: Distal
Q: What position means closer to the point of attachment? A: Proximal
Q: What body plane divides the body into top and bottom? A: Transverse plane
Q: What body plane divides the body into left and right? A: Sagittal plane
Q: What body plane divides the body into front and back? A: Frontal plane
Q: Which major body cavity includes the cranial and spinal sub-cavities? A: Dorsal cavity
Q: Which major body cavity includes the orbits, nasal, oral, thoracic, and abdominopelvic sub-cavities? A: Ventral cavity
Q: What is histology? A: The study of tissues
Q: Define tissue. A: A group of cells that work together to perform a specific function
Q: What are the four fundamental tissues? A: Epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous
Q: What are the functions of epithelial tissue? A: To cover, line, and protect the body and its internal organs
Q: What is the function of connective tissue? A: Serves as the framework of the body, providing support and structure for organs
Q: What is nerve tissue composed of? A: Neurons and connective tissue called neuroglia
Q: What ability does muscle tissue have? A: The ability to contract or shorten
Q: What is voluntary muscle tissue? A: Skeletal muscles
Q: What is involuntary muscle tissue? A: Smooth and cardiac muscles
Q: Define the cell. A: The basic unit of life and building block of tissues and organs
Q: What is the function of the nucleus and ribosomes within a cell? A: The nucleus contains DNA. Ribosomes are important in the synthesis of proteins.
Q: What do proteins provide? A: Enzymes that regulate all chemical reactions within the body
Q: Describe the process of mitosis. A: Necessary for growth and repair in the body. DNA is duplicated and distributed evenly into two daughter cells.
Q: Describe the process of meiosis. A: Special cell division in the gonads (ovaries and testes). The chromosome number is reduced from 46 to 23, so when egg and sperm unite in fertilization, the zygote will have the correct number of chromosomes.
Q: What is the largest organ of the body? A: Skin
Q: What three layers does the skin consist of? A: Epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis
Q: What is the epidermis and its purpose? A: The outermost layer of skin made of dead keratinized epithelial cells. It protects the body, provides a waterproof barrier, and creates our skin tone. It rests on subcutaneous tissue that connects the skin to muscles.
Q: What is the dermis and its purpose? A: The underlying layer under the epidermis. It consists of connective tissue with blood vessels, nerve endings, hair follicles, and sweat glands.
Q: What is the hypodermis and its purpose? A: The deeper layer of skin made of fat and connective tissue.
Q: What are the layers of the epidermis from outer to inner? A: Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, and stratum germinativum
Q: What does the stratum germinativum include and what is its significance? A: Includes stratum basale and stratum spinosum. This is where mitosis occurs.
Q: What protein pigment do epidermal cells contain and what is its purpose? A: Melanin. It protects against radiation from the sun.
Q: What sweat gland is most widely distributed and what is its purpose? A: Eccrine glands. They regulate body temperature by releasing a watery secretion that evaporates from the surface of the skin.
Q: What is the purpose of apocrine sweat glands? A: Located in armpits and groin, they display apocrine secretion. The secretion contains bits of cytoplasm; cell debris attracts bacteria which creates body odor.
Q: Explain apocrine secretion. A: The secretion contains bits of cytoplasm from the secreting cells. The cell debris attracts bacteria which creates body odor. Sebaceous glands then release an oily secretion (sebum) through hair follicles to lubricate the skin and prevent drying.
Q: How is sebum produced in the sebaceous gland? A: Through holocrine secretion
Q: What are sebaceous glands susceptible to during adolescence? A: Becoming clogged and attracting bacteria
Q: What do the appendages of the skin include? A: Hair and nails
Q: What strong protein are hair and nails composed of? A: Keratin
Q: What does the skeletal system consist of? A: Bone, cartilage, ligaments, and joints
Q: What are the functions of the skeletal system? A: Support, movement, blood and cell formation (hemopoiesis), protection of internal organs, detoxification, provision for muscle attachment, and mineral storage (calcium and phosphorus)
Q: What are the shapes bones are classified by? A: Long, short, flat, irregular, and sesamoid
Q: The humerus is an example of what shape of bone? A: Long bone
Q: The talus is an example of what shape of bone? A: Short bone
Q: The sternum is an example of what shape of bone? A: Flat bone
Q: The vertebra is an example of what shape of bone? A: Irregular bone
Q: The patella is an example of what shape of bone? A: Sesamoid bone
Q: What is the epiphysis? A: The end part of a long bone, initially growing separately from the shaft
Q: What type of bone is composed of osteons/osteoblasts? A: Compact bone
Q: Which type of bone has trabeculae? A: Spongy bone
Q: Which type of bone has perforating canals? A: Spongy bone
Q: Where is spongy bone located? A: In the epiphyses
Q: Where is compact bone located? A: In the diaphysis
Q: Which type of bone has a central canal? A: Compact bone
Q: Which type of bone has spaces filled with red marrow? A: Spongy bone
Q: What does the axial skeleton consist of? A: Skull, vertebral column, twelve pairs of ribs, and the sternum
Q: How many bones total make up the skull? A: 28
Q: What are the two parts of the skull and how many bones make up each? A: Facial = 14 (with 6 from the ears); Cranial = 14
Q: What bones are included in the facial bones? A: 2 nasal bones, 2 maxillary bones, 2 zygomatic bones, 1 mandible, 2 palatine bones, 1 vomer, 2 lacrimal bones, and 2 inferior nasal conchae
Q: What is the only moveable bone of the skull? A: The mandible
Q: What bones are included in the cranial bones? A: The single occipital, frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid; and the paired parietal, temporal, and ossicles of the ear
Q: What are the three parts of the ear? A: Malleus, incus, and stapes
Q: What are the five subsections of the vertebral column and how many bones does each have? A: Cervical = 7, Thoracic = 12, Lumbar = 5, Sacral (sacrum) = 5, Coccygeal (tailbone)
Q: What does the appendicular skeleton consist of? A: The girdles and limbs
Q: What bones make up the upper appendicular skeleton? A: Clavicle, scapula, humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges
Q: What bones make up the lower appendicular skeleton? A: Pelvic girdle/os coxae (ilium, ischium, and pubis), femur, tibia, fibula, tarsals, metatarsals, and phalanges
Q: What are the three parts of the os coxae (pelvic girdle)? A: Ilium, ischium, and pubis
Q: How do muscles produce movement? A: Nerve stimulation causes muscles to contract. Contraction results from the sliding together of actin and myosin filaments within the muscle cell or fiber.
Q: What is each muscle cell made of? A: Myofibrils, which are made up of smaller units called sarcomeres
Q: What must be present for a muscle cell to contract? A: Calcium and adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
Q: What causes the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum? A: Nervous stimulation from motor neurons
Q: What do calcium ions attach to and what does this do? A: Calcium attaches to inhibitory proteins on the actin filaments, moving them aside so cross-bridges can form between actin and myosin filaments.
Q: What do the actin and myosin filaments do using ATP? A: They slide together to produce muscle contraction.
Q: What is another name for skeletal muscles and why? A: Voluntary muscles, because they are under conscious control
Q: What are the two parts of a skeletal muscle pair? A: Prime mover (the muscle that executes a given movement) and antagonist (the muscle that produces the opposite movement)
Q: What does a synergist do? A: Works in cooperation with the prime mover
Q: What are the four muscle movement classifications? A: Flexors, extensors, abductors, and adductors
Q: What does a flexor do? A: Reduces the angle of the joint
Q: What does an extensor do? A: Increases the angle of the joint
Q: What does an abductor do? A: Draws a limb away from the midline
Q: What does an adductor do? A: Returns the limb back to the midline
Q: What does the nervous system consist of? A: Brain, spinal cord, and nerves
Q: What capabilities does the nervous system give us? A: Perceive changes in external and internal environment (touch, smell, hearing, sight, taste) and abstract activities such as thinking, reasoning, and remembering
Q: How does the nervous system create body movements? A: It supplies skeletal muscles with nerve impulses that cause contraction.
Q: What do dendrites do? A: Transmit the impulse toward the cell body
Q: What does the axon do? A: Transmit the impulse away from the cell body
Q: What are the two divisions of the nervous system? A: Central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system (PNS)
Q: What is the CNS? A: Comprised of the spinal cord and brain
Q: What is the PNS? A: Composed of all other neurons in the body that are not part of the CNS
Q: Where do sensory (afferent) neurons transmit nerve pulses? A: Toward the CNS (entering through dorsal horns of the spinal cord)
Q: Where do motor (efferent) neurons transmit nerve pulses? A: Away from the CNS toward effector organs such as muscles, glands, and digestive organs (leaving through ventral horns of the spinal cord)
Q: What are the major parts of the brain and their functions? A: Cerebrum (movement and sensory input), cerebellum (muscular coordination), medulla oblongata (controls vital functions such as respiration and heart rate)
Q: How long is the spinal cord? A: Approximately 18 inches long
Q: How many pairs of nerve impulses exit the spinal cord? A: 31
Q: What is a simple spinal reflex? A: Nerve impulses that travel through the spinal cord only and do not reach the brain
Q: Where do the nervous system and endocrine system meet in the body? A: At the hypothalamus and pituitary glands
Q: What controls the hypothalamus? A: Feedback of hormones in the blood
Q: Which system has more long-lasting and widespread effects on the body? A: The endocrine system
Q: Define hormones. A: Chemical messengers that control the growth, differentiation, and metabolism of specific target cells; they affect cell activity by altering the rate of protein synthesis.
Q: What are the two major groups of hormones? A: Steroid and nonsteroid
Q: What do steroid hormones do? A: Enter the target cells and have a direct effect on the DNA of the nucleus
Q: What do nonsteroid hormones do? A: They are protein hormones that remain at the cell surface and act through a second messenger, usually adenosine monophosphate (AMP)
Q: What is the main function of each endocrine gland? A: The production of hormones
Q: What other organs produce hormones? A: Stomach, small intestine, and kidneys
Q: What is the pituitary gland nicknamed? A: The master gland
Q: What is the pituitary gland attached to? A: It is attached to the hypothalamus by a stalk called the infundibulum
Q: What two major portions make up the pituitary gland? A: The anterior lobe (adenohypophysis) and the posterior lobe (neurohypophysis)
Q: What hormones are released from the adenohypophysis? A: Somatotropin/growth hormone (GH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and luteinising hormone (LH)
Q: What hormones are released from the neurohypophysis? A: Oxytocin (the labor hormone) and antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Q: What are some other important endocrine glands besides the pituitary? A: Thyroid, parathyroids, adrenals, pancreas, and gonads (ovaries and testes)
Q: What are the three formed elements of blood produced from stem cells in red bone marrow? A: Erythrocytes (red blood cells), leukocytes (white blood cells), and platelets
Q: What do RBCs transport? A: Oxygen, which binds to the pigmented protein hemoglobin
Q: How can the five types of leukocytes be distinguished? A: By size, appearance of nucleus, staining properties, and presence or absence of visible cytoplasmic granules
Q: What processes are WBCs active in? A: Phagocytosis (neutrophils and monocytes) and antibody formation (lymphocytes)
Q: What process are platelets active in? A: Blood clotting
Q: What does blood transport away from body cells? A: Carbon dioxide and metabolic waste
Q: What percentage of plasma is proteins, ions, nutrients, waste products, and hormones? A: Approximately 10%
Q: What are the two circuits of the heart? A: Pulmonary (sends blood to lungs for oxygenation) and systemic (sends blood to the rest of the body)
Q: What receives blood and what pumps it into circulation? A: Blood is received by the atria and pumped into circulation by the ventricles.
Q: What valves are found between the atria and ventricles? A: Tricuspid on the right side and bicuspid on the left side
Q: Where are semilunar valves found? A: At the entrances of the pulmonary trunk and aorta
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