Nursing Test Bank : Ultimate Guide & Resources

Last updated 14 October 2025

733

What are Nursing Test Banks?

Nursing test banks are essential study resources that contain a curated collection of exam-style questions and answers (MCQs, true/false statements, rationales, case studies, essays and much more) specifically tailored to the nursing field. Often used by instructors to create tests and quizzes, these test banks mirror real-world clinical scenarios and structured exam formats, helping students prepare under conditions that closely simulate actual nursing exams. In this article, you will be introduced to popular nursing test banks in 2025 and sample questions, answers and rationales from the different sets of test banks for nursing students.

Whether you're studying for fundamentals, medical-surgical, or psychiatric mental health nursing, test banks support your learning by reinforcing key concepts, improving critical thinking skills, and helping you identify areas that need more review. These tools are especially valuable for mastering content efficiently and building confidence before high-stakes exams. By practicing with test banks, nursing students can significantly improve their chances of success and perform better in both classroom and clinical assessments.

PasingGrades – The Forum Providing Suitable Test Banks

Passinggrades, the best test bank website is a go-to platform for nursing students looking for nursing test banks both free and paid options.

It provides a vast selection of fundamentals of nursing test bank resources, including practice questions for psychiatric mental health nursing test bank and medical surgical nursing test bank exams.

Students can find top-rated resources like the Lewis medical-surgical nursing 12th edition test bank and the ATI nursing test bank, which include real-world clinical scenarios.

Whether preparing for NCLEX or course exams, this platform ensures you get accurate, up-to-date study materials.

Why Nursing Test Banks Are Essential for Success

Using nursing test banks significantly boosts exam performance by offering structured practice tests. Resources such as the Lewis med surg nursing test bank and test bank for medical surgical nursing Lewis cover complex case studies and detailed answer explanations.

For students seeking a free nursing test bank, platforms offering nursing free test bank downloads provide access to real exam-style questions. The mental health nursing test bank and psychiatric nursing 9th edition Keltner test bank Quizlet resources ensure students understand critical patient care concepts.

How to Use Nursing Test Banks Effectively

To maximize study sessions, students should:

Use test bank fundamentals of nursing to build a strong foundation.
Practice with med surg nursing test bank for real-world scenarios.
Access psychiatric nursing test bank for mental health topics.
Take timed practice tests to improve exam speed.

With resources like medical surgical nursing test bank and fundamentals of nursing test bank, students can achieve higher scores and excel in clinical practice.

Where to Find the Best Nursing Test Banks Online

Looking for a reliable source to access nursing test banks? We’ve got you covered! Visit PassingGrades to explore a vast collection of fundamentals of nursing test bank, medical surgical nursing test bank, and more.

Whether you need the ATI nursing test bank or the latest psychiatric mental health nursing test bank, this platform provides high-quality resources to help you succeed. Don’t miss out on free and premium options, including Lewis medical-surgical nursing test bank and test bank for medical surgical nursing Lewis. Click the link now and start preparing with the best study materials available!

Popular Nursing Test Banks to Boost Your Grades

Nursing Pharmacology Test Banks

Test Bank for Karch's Focus on Nursing Pharmacology

Focus on Nursing Pharmacology Sample Questions

1. The pharmacology instructor is discussing the adrenergic drug ephedrine with the nursing students and lists an adverse reaction of this drug as what?

A) Bronchoconstriction

B) Hyperglycemia

C) Cardiac arrhythmias

D) Severe constipation

Ans: B

Feedback:

Ephedrine (generic), a drug used as a bronchodilator to treat asthma and relieve nasal congestion, can break down stored glycogen and cause an elevation of blood glucose by its effects on the sympathetic nervous system. Ephedrine does not cause bronchoconstriction, cardiac arrhythmias, or severe constipation.

2. The nurse needs to consider teratogenic effects of medications when caring for what population of patients?

A) Older adults

B) Patients with a history of cancer

C) Children

D) Young adult women

Ans: D

Feedback:

A teratogen is a drug that can harm the fetus or embryo so the nurse would consider the teratogenic properties of medications when caring for woman of child-bearing age including adolescents and young adult women. Teratogens have no impact on older adults or children. Carcinogens are chemicals that cause cancer.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving an antineoplastic medication who reports fever, chills, sore throat, weakness, and back pain. What type of adverse effect does the nurse suspect this patient is experiencing?

A) Dermatologic reaction

B) Blood dyscrasia

C) Electrolyte imbalance

D) Superinfection

Ans: B

Feedback:

Symptoms of blood dyscrasias include fever, chills, sore throat, weakness, back pain, dark urine, decreased hematocrit (anemia), low platelet count (thrombocytopenia), low white blood cell count (leukopenia), and a reduction of all cellular elements of the complete blood count (pancytopenia). Dermatologic reactions would be reflected in skin alterations, electrolyte imbalances would result in differing symptoms depending on the electrolyte involved but would not cause chills and fever, and a superinfection could cause a fever but would not cause a sore throat, weakness, or back pain unless the infection involved those body parts.

4. The pharmacology instructor explains to students that adverse effects can be extensions of what?

A) Primary action of a drug

B) Anaphylaxis

C) Secondary action of a drug

D) Anticholinergic responses to the drug

Ans: A

Feedback:

Primary action adverse effects are extensions of the therapeutic action and are usually the result of overdosage, essentially too much of the therapeutic effect. Anaphylaxis is not an extension of the therapeutic action of the drug but a histamine reaction to an allergen. Secondary actions of a drug are negative effects of the drug that occur even when the drug is in the therapeutic range. Anticholinergic responses occur in response to drugs that block the parasympathetic nervous system.

5. A student nurse asks her study group how to define a drug allergy. What would be the peer group’s best response?

A) A second effect of the body to a specific drug

B) The formation of antibodies to a drug protein causing an immune response when the person is next exposed to that drug.

C) A serum sickness caused by a reaction to a drug

D) Immediate systemic reaction to the drug when exposed to the drug the first time. Ans: B

Feedback:

A drug allergy is the formation of antibodies to a drug or drug protein; causes an immune response when the person is next exposed to that drug. A drug allergy does not occur at the first exposure to a drug. A second action of a specific drug is an adverse response that the drug causes in addition to the therapeutic effect. Serum sickness is one type of allergic reaction but does not define allergic reaction. An immediate systemic reaction to a drug, usually not on first exposure, is an anaphylactic reaction.

6. The home health nurse is caring for an elderly patient with benign prostatic hypertrophy. An anticholinergic drug has been prescribed. What would be the nurse’s priority teaching point for this patient?

A) Urinary incontinence may develop.

B) Bladder hypertonia may develop.

C) An increased dosage may be required.

D) Empty the bladder before taking the drug.

Ans: D

Feedback:

A patient with an enlarged prostate who takes an anticholinergic drug may develop urinary retention or even bladder paralysis when the drug’s effects block the urinary sphincters, so anticholinergic drugs are avoided whenever possible. However, if the medication is needed, the patient must be taught to empty the bladder before taking the drug. A reduced dosage also may be required to avoid potentially serious effects on the urinary system but this would not be a teaching point for the patient because the provider will make that decision. Hypotonia, not hypertonia, is more likely to occur. Urinary incontinence is not a likely effect in this case.

7. The Kardex record of a male patient who is prescribed antihistamines for treating an allergy reads as follows:

Age: 32; Profession: Carpenter; Lifestyle & diet: Lives alone, average smoker, nonalcoholic, no food preferences, practices yoga; Medical history: Suffers from hay fever, recent urinary tract infection that has been treated successfully. What information from the Kardex is likely to have the greatest implication in educating the patient about antihistamine administration?

A) The patient’s age

B) The patient’s smoking habit

C) The patient’s profession

D) The patient’s medical history

Ans: C

Feedback:

Most antihistamines cause drowsiness, so the nurse should advise the patient not to operate machinery or perform tasks that require alertness when taking antihistamines (e.g., climbing ladders, working on rooftops, standing on iron supports at the top of a building). Because the patient is not an older adult, his age has no implications on the therapy. Although encouraging the patient to make better lifestyle choices is an important part of the patient’s plan of care, this information is not related to administration of antihistamines. There is nothing in the documented medical history that is significant to antihistamine use.

8. The nurse is caring for a patient who experienced a severe headache. When the prescribed number of over-the-counter pain relievers did not work the patient said she took double the dosage an hour later. The nurse recognizes this patient is at greatest risk for what?

A) An allergic reaction

B) Anaphylactic reaction

C) Poisoning

D) Sedative effects

Ans: C

Feedback:

This patient has taken an overdosage of the medication. Poisoning occurs when an overdose of a drug damages multiple body systems, leading to the potential for fatal reactions. Allergic and anaphylactic reactions can occur with any drug administration but this is not the patient’s greatest risk. More information about the exact type of medication would be needed to determine whether sedative effects are likely.

9. What classification of drug allergy would be described as an immune system reaction to injected proteins used to treat immune conditions?

A) A cytotoxic reaction

B) Serum sickness

C) A delayed reaction

D) An anaphylactic reaction

Ans: B

Feedback:

Serum sickness is an immune system reaction to certain medications, injected proteins used to treat immune conditions, or antiserum, the liquid part of blood that contains antibodies that help protect against infectious or poisonous substances. An allergic reaction can occur with any drug, not just those containing protein. Anaphylaxis is an acute, systemic, life-threatening allergic reaction. A cytotoxic reaction is one in which antibodies circulate and attack antigens on cell sites, causing death of that cell.

10. Why does the nurse need to be alert for any indication of an allergic reaction in patients?

A) To obtain early warning of noncompliance in drug therapy

B) To increase the effectiveness of a specific medication

C) To maintain the patient’s safety during drug therapy

D) To reduce the risk of adverse effects during drug therapy

Ans: C

Feedback:

Being alert to adverse effectswhat to assess and how to intervene appropriatelycan increase the effectiveness of a drug regimen, provide for patient safety, and improve patient compliance. Indications of allergic reactions would not indicate noncompliance or improve effectiveness of a specific medication. Indications of allergic reaction would indicate an adverse effect and would not reduce the risk.

Medical Surgical Nursing Test Banks

Test Bank for Lewiss Medical-Surgical Nursing, Assessment and Management of Clinical Problems

Medical-Surgical Nursing Sample Questions

1. A patient who is actively bleeding is admitted to the emergency department. Which approach would the nurse use to obtain an accurate health history?

a. Briefly interview the patient while obtaining vital signs.

b. Obtain subjective data about the patient from family members.

c. Omit subjective data collection and obtain the physical examination.

d. Use the health care provider‘s medical history to obtain subjective data.

ANS: A

In an emergency situation, the nurse may need to ask only the most pertinent questions for a specific problem and obtain more information later. A complete health history will include subjective information that is not available in the health care provider‘s medical history.

Family members may be able to provide some data, but only the patient will be able to give subjective information about the bleeding. Because the subjective data about the cause of the patient‘s bleeding will be essential, obtaining the physical examination alone will not provide sufficient information.

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment

2. Immediate surgery is planned for a patient with acute abdominal pain. Which question by the nurse will elicit direct information about the patient‘s coping–stress tolerance pattern? a. “Can you rate your pain on a 0 to 10 scale?”

b. “What do you think caused this abdominal pain?”

c. “Are there other problems or concerns right now?”

d. “How do you feel about yourself and being hospitalized?”

ANS: C

The coping–stress tolerance pattern includes information about other major stressors confronting the patient. The health perception–health management pattern includes information about the patient‘s ideas about risk factors. Feelings about self and the hospitalization are assessed in the self-perception–self-concept pattern. Intensity of pain is part of the cognitive–perceptual pattern.

MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

3. During the health history interview, a patient tells the nurse about periodic fainting spells. Which question would the nurse ask to elicit any associated clinical manifestations? a. “How frequently do you have the fainting spells?”

b. “Do the spells occur at any particular time of day?”

c. “Where are you when you have the fainting spells?”

d. “Do you have other symptoms along with the spells?”

ANS: D

Asking about other associated symptoms will provide the nurse more information about all the clinical manifestations related to the fainting spells. Information about the setting is obtained by asking where the patient was and what the patient was doing when the symptom occurred. The other questions from the nurse are appropriate for obtaining information about chronology and frequency.

4.The nurse records the following general survey: “The patient is a 50-year-old Asian female accompanied by her husband and two daughters. Alert and oriented. Does not make eye contact with the nurse and responds slowly, but appropriately, to questions. No apparent disabilities or distinguishing features.” What additional information should the nurse add to this general survey?

a. Nutritional status

b. Intake and output

c. Reasons for contact with the health care system

d. Comments of family members about the condition

ANS: A

The general survey also describes the patient‘s general nutritional status. The other information will be obtained when doing the complete nursing history and examination but is not obtained through the initial scanning of a patient.

5. A nurse performs a health history and physical examination with a patient who has a right leg fracture. Which data would be a pertinent negative finding?

a. Patient has several bruised and swollen areas on the right leg.

b. Patient states that there have been no other recent health problems.

c. Patient refuses to bend the right knee because of the associated pain.

d. Patient denies having pain when the area over the fracture is palpated.

ANS: D

The nurse expects that a patient with a leg fracture will have pain over the fractured area. The bruising and swelling and pain with bending are positive findings. Having no other recent health problems is neither a positive nor a negative finding with regard to a leg fracture.

6. The nurse asks an older adult patient with rectal bleeding, “Have you ever had a colonoscopy?” Which type of assessment is the nurse performing? a. Focused assessment

b. Emergency assessment

c. Detailed health assessment

d. Comprehensive assessment

ANS: A

A focused assessment is an abbreviated assessment used to evaluate the status of previously identified problems and monitor for signs of new problems. It can be done when a specific problem is identified. An emergency assessment is done when the nurse needs to obtain information about life-threatening problems quickly while simultaneously taking action to maintain vital function. A comprehensive assessment includes a detailed health history and physical examination of one body system or many body systems. It is typically done on admission to the hospital or onset of care in a primary care setting.

7. The nurse is preparing to perform a focused assessment for a patient reporting shortness of breath. Which equipment will be needed? a. Flashlight

b. Stethoscope

c. Tongue blades

d. Percussion hammer

ANS: B

A stethoscope is used to auscultate breath sounds. The other equipment may be used for a comprehensive assessment but will not be needed for a focused respiratory assessment.

8. Which adaptation to the physical examination technique would the nurse include for an alert older adult patient?

a. Avoid the use of touch as much as possible.

b. Use slightly more pressure for palpation of the liver.

c. Organize the sequence to minimize position changes.

d. Speak softly and slowly when talking with the patient.

ANS: C

Older patients may have age-related changes in mobility that make it more difficult to change position. There is no need to avoid the use of touch when examining older patients. Less pressure should be used over the liver. Because the patient is alert, there is no indication that there is any age-related difficulty in understanding directions from the nurse.

9. While the nurse is taking the health history, a patient states, “My mother and sister both had double mastectomies and were unable to exercise for weeks.” Which functional health pattern is represented by this patient‘s statement? a. Activity–exercise

b. Cognitive–perceptual

c. Coping–stress tolerance

d. Health perception–health management

ANS: D

10. The information in the patient statement relates to risk factors and important information about the family history. Identification of risk factors falls into the health perception–health maintenance pattern.

MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

11. A patient has arrived at the hospital with severe abdominal pain and hypotension. Which type of assessment would the nurse do at this time?

a. Focused assessment

b. Subjective assessment

c. Emergency assessment

d. Comprehensive assessment

Fundamentals of Nursing Test Bank
Maternity Nursing Test Banks
Newborn Nursing Care & Assessment Test Banks
Neurological Disorders Nursing Test Bank
Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing Test Bank

10 Most Commonly Studied Topics by RNs in 2025

1. Medical-Surgical Nursing

Covers adult health conditions across body systems (e.g., cardiovascular, respiratory, endocrine).
Most RNs encounter these topics in general hospital settings.

2. Pharmacology

Includes drug classifications, side effects, interactions, and safe administration.
Critical for NCLEX review and real-world medication management.

3. Pathophysiology

Focuses on how diseases develop and affect the body.
Helps RNs understand signs and symptoms, not just memorize them.

4. Critical Care / ICU Nursing

Advanced care of critically ill patients, including ventilator management and hemodynamics.
A core topic for nurses in emergency or intensive care units.

5. Maternal and Newborn Nursing

Covers pregnancy, labor and delivery, postpartum care, and newborn assessment.
Essential for nurses in OB-GYN or maternity units.

6. Pediatric Nursing

Focuses on child development, common pediatric illnesses, and family-centered care.
Important for nurses working in pediatrics or school health.

7. Mental Health / Psychiatric Nursing

Emphasizes therapeutic communication, psychiatric conditions, and crisis intervention.
Vital due to rising awareness of mental health needs.

8. Evidence-Based Practice (EBP)

Teaches how to evaluate and apply research in clinical decision-making.
Required for quality improvement and professional development.

9. Leadership and Management

Includes delegation, prioritization, communication, and team coordination.
Key for charge nurses or those pursuing nurse manager roles.

10. Infection Control / Patient Safety

Includes standard precautions, transmission-based precautions, and safety protocols.
High-priority topic due to hospital-acquired infections and safety standards.