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  • Chapter 01: Cellular Biology | Understanding Pathophysiology Test Bank

Chapter 01: Cellular Biology | Understanding Pathophysiology Test Bank

Chapter 01: Cellular Biology | Understanding Pathophysiology Test Bank

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The test bank has all the chapters, questions, answers and rationale.  Test Bank for Understanding Pathophysiology 7th Edition by Sue Huenther.

Chapter 01: Cellular Biology

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1.   A student is observing a cell under the microscope. It is observed to have supercoiled DNA

with histones. Which of the following would also be observed by the student?

a.   A single circular chromosome

b.   A nucleus

c.   Free-floating nuclear material

d.   No organelles

2.   A nurse is instructing the staff about cellular functions. Which cellular function is the nurse describing when an isolated cell absorbs oxygen and uses it to transform nutrients to energy? a.      Metabolic absorption

b.   Communication

c.   Secretion

d.   Respiration

3.   A eukaryotic cell is undergoing DNA replication. In which region of the cell would most of the genetic information be contained?

a.   Mitochondria

b.   Ribosome

c.   Nucleolus

d.   Nucleus Cytoplasm

4.   Which of the following can remove proteins attached to the cell’s bilayer by dissolving the layer itself?

a.   Peripheral membrane proteins

b.   Integral membrane proteins

c.   Glycoproteins

d.   Cell adhesion molecules

5.   Which of the following can bind to plasma membrane receptors?

a.   Oxygen

b.   Ribosomes

c.   Amphipathic lipids

d.   Ligands

 

6.   A nurse is reviewing a report from a patient with metastatic cancer. What alternation in the extracellular matrix would suNppoRrt thIe dGiagnBo.siCs ofMmetastatic cancer?

a.   Decreased fibronectin

b.   Increased collagen

c.   Decreased elastin

d.   Increased glycoproteins

7.   Which form of cell communication is used to relate to other cells in direct physical contact?

a.   Cell junction

b.   Gap junction

c.   Desmosome

d.   Tight junction

8.   Pancreatic beta cells secrete insulin, which inhibits secretion of glucagon from neighboring alpha cells. This action is an example of which of the following signaling types?

a.   Paracrine

b.   Autocrine

c.   Neurohormonal

d.   Hormonal

9.   In cellular metabolism, each enzyme has a high affinity for a:

a.   solute.

b.   substrate.

c.   receptor. 

d.   ribosome.

10.   An athlete runs a marathon, after which his muscles feel fatigued and unable to contract. The

athlete asks the nurse why this happened. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that the problem is result of a deficiency of:

a.   GTP 

b.   AMP 

c.   ATP 

d.   GMP

 

11.   Which phase of catabolism produces the most ATP?

a.   Digestion

 b.   Glycolysis 

c.   Oxidation

d.   Citric acid cycle

12.   A nurse is teaching the staff about the phases of cellular catabolism. Which phases should the nurse include?

a.   Digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, and the citric acid cycle

b.   Diffusion, osmosis, and mediated transport

c.   S phase, G phase, and M phase

d.   Metabolic absorption, respiration, and excretion

13.   A runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle energy. Which of the following will facilitate his continued muscle performance?

a.   Electron-transport chain

b.   Aerobic glycolysis

c.   Anaerobic glycolysis

d.   Oxidative phosphorylation

14.   A faculty member asks a student to identify the appropriate term for the movement of a solute from an area of greater to lesser concentration. Which answer indicates the nursing student understood the teaching?

a.   Osmosis

b.   Diffusion

c.   Hydrostatic pressure

d.   Active transport

15.   Which description accurately describes electrolytes?

a.   Small lipid-soluble molecules

b.   Large protein molecules

c.   Micronutrients used to produce ATP

d.   Electrically charged molecules

16.   A nurse is reading a chart and sees the term oncotic pressure. The nurse recalls that oncotic pressure (colloid osmotic pressure) is determined by:

a.   the concentration of sodium.

b.   plasma proteins.

c.   hydrostatic pressure.

d.   the availability of membrane transporter proteins.

17.   A patient has a body fluid of 300 mOsm/kg. This lab result is measuring:

a.   osmolality.

b.   osmolarity.

c.   osmotic pressure.

d.   oncotic pressure.

18.   A nurse is discussing the movement of fluid across the arterial end of capillary membranes into the interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary. Which process of fluid movement is the nurse describing?

a.   Hydrostatic pressure

b.   Osmosis

c.   Diffusion

d.   Active transport

19.   How are potassium and sodium transported across plasma membranes?

a.   By passive electrolyte channels

b.   By coupled channels

c.   By adenosine triphosphate enzyme (ATPase)

d.   By diffusion

20.   The ion transporter that moves Na+ and Ca2+ simultaneously in the same direction is an example of which of the following types of transport?

a.   Biport

b.   Uniport 

c.   Antiport 

d.   Symport

21.   During which process are bacteria engulfed for ingestion?

a.   Endocytosis

b.   Pinocytosis

c.   Phagocytosis

d.   Exocytosis

22.   Some cancer drugs work during the cell cycle phase where nuclear and cytoplasmic divisions occur. What is this cell cycle phase called?

a.   G1

b.   S

c.   M

d.   G2

23.   Which causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential that initiates an action potential?

a.   Potassium gates open, and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive.

b.   Sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive.

c.   Sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative.

d.   Potassium gates close, allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative.

 

24.   A cell is isolated, and electroNphUyRsiSolIogNyGstTuBdi.esCreOvMeal that the resting membrane potential is

-70 mV. The predominant intracellular ion is Na+, and the predominant extracellular ion is

K+. With voltage change, which of the following would result in an action potential?

a.   K+ rushing into the cell

b.   Na+ rushing into the cell

c.   Na+ rushing out of the cell

d.   K+ rushing out of the cell

 

25.   A nurse teaching the staff about platelet-derived growth factor includes information that platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) stimulates the production of:

a.   platelets.

b.   epidermal cells.

c.   connective tissue cells.

d.   fibroblast cells.

26.   The phase of the cell cycle during which the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are pulled apart is referred to as:

a.   anaphase.

b.   telophase.

c.   prophase.

d.   metaphase.

27.   What is the role of cytokines in cell reproduction?

a.   Provide growth factor for tissue growth and development. b.   Block progress of cell reproduction through the cell cycle. c.   Restrain cell growth and development.

d.   Provide nutrients for cell growth and development.

 

28.   A biopsy of the lung bronchi revealed ciliated epithelial cells that are capable of secretion and absorption. These cells are called             columnar epithelium.

a.   simple

b.   ciliated simple

c.   stratified

d.   pseudostratified ciliated

29.   A student is reviewing functions of the cell. The student would be correct in identifying a chief function of the nerve cell as:

a.   sensory interpretation.

b.   conductivity.

c.   maintenance of homeostasis.

d.   communication.

 

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1.   A nurse recalls that the basic types of tissues are: (select all that apply)

a.   nerve.

b.   epithelial.

c.   mucosal.

d.   connective.

e.   skeletal.

f.    muscle.

 

2.   Characteristics of prokaryotes include which of the following? (select all that apply)

a.   They contain no organelles.

b.   Their nuclear material isNnoUtRenScIasNedGbTyBa.nuCcOleMar membrane.

c.   They contain a distinct nucleus.

d.   They contain histones.

e.   They contain a cellular membrane.

 

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