Preguntas MICRO
|
Unit 1 |
1. Sir Alexander Fleming discovered
1. cephalosporin
2. penicillin
3. sulphonamides
4. a fungi, penicillium notarum
5. oral microbes
2. The bacteria that causes diphtheria is called corynebacterium diphtheria. Which of the following has the name of this bacterial species written in proper scientific form?
1. corynebacterium diphtheria
2. Corynebacterium Diphtheria
3. Corynebacterium diphtheria
4. corynebacterium Diphtheria
5. All of them are correct denominations
3. Which of the following scientist disproved spontaneous generation: Midterm 2020
1. Joseph Lister
2. Louis Pasteur
3. Robert Koch
4. Antoine van Leeuwenhoek
4. Which of the following scientist formulated the germ theory of disease: Midterm 2020
1. Joseph Lister
2. Robert Koch
3. Antony van Leeuwenhoek
4. Alexander Fleming
|
1. Which of the following is a fungal pathogen?
1. Vibrio cholerae
2. Leishmania major
3. Poliovirus
4. Candida albicans
5. Bordetella perturssis
|
Unit 3 |
1. Muramic acid is a component of:
1. Bacterial cell wall
2. Eukaryots cell wall
3. Archaea cell wall
4. Arcaea plasma membrane
5. Bacterial plasma membrane
2. Functions of fimbriae do not include:
1. attachment to other bacteria and/or host cells
2. avoid phagocytosis
3. avoid immune recognition
4. chemotaxis
5. all of them are functions of fimbriae
3. With regards to energy and carbon source usage all pathogenic bacteria are:
1. Litotrophs
2. Organotrophs
3. Autotrophs
4. Heterotrphs
5. There are pathogenic bacteria in all groups
4. Which of the following extracellular structures allows some bacteria to resits phagocytosis by phagocytic cells? Midterm 2020
1. Capsule
2. Fimbria
3. Sex pili
4. Flagella
5. Endotoxin
|
Unit 4 |
1. ….. bacteria lose their crystal violet when the decolosiser alcohol is added during the gram stain procedure
1. Gram-negative
2. Gram-positive
3. Acid-fast
4. Both gram-negative and gram-positive
2. Blood agar is: Midterm 2020
1. A selective media
2. an enriched media
3. an indicator media
4. an enrichment media
5. a synthetic media
3. The diagram below represents a hypothetical operon in the bacterium E.coli. The operon consists of two structural genes (A and B), which code for the enzymes A-ase and B-ase, respectively, and also includes P (promoter) and O (operator) regions as shown.
When a certain compount (X) is added to the growth medium of E. coli, the separate enzymes A-ase and B-ase are both synthesised at a 50-fold higher rate than in the absence of X. (X has a molecular weight of about 200). Which of the following statements is true of the operon described above?
5. All four genes (A, B, O and P) will be transcribed into an mRNA that will then be translated into four different proteins.
6. The 3’ end of the mRNA from the operon will correspond to the left end of the operon as drawn.
7. The 5’ end of the messenger from this operon will correspond to the right end of the operon as drawn.
8. The repressor for this operon binds just to the right of A
9. When RNA polymerase makes mRNA from this operon, it begins RNA synthesis just to the left of the gene A.
10. A non-sense mutation: Midterm 2020
1. Causes change in a single amino acid
2. changes a normal codon into a stop codon
3. alters a base byt does not change the amino acid
4. adds one amino acid
5. deletes one amino acid
11. Malachite green is used to stain:
1. Gram positives
2. Gram negatives
3. Capsule
4. Acid-fast microorganisms
5. Endospores
12.Seletine F borth: Midterm 2020
1. An enrichment media
2. selective media
3. differential media
4. A and B
5. B and C
13.Prior to staining, smears of microorganisms are heat-fixed in order to:
1. kill the organism
2. attach the organism firmly to the slide
3. kill the organism and attach the organism firmly to the slide
4. neither
14.Select the incorrect match: Midterm 2020
1. Selenite F broth: enrichment media
2. Chocolate agar: enriched media
3. Christensen’ urease medium: differential media
15.The period of time between infection and the onset of symptoms is called: Midterm 2020
1. Unapparent infection
2. The period of disease
3. Incubation period
4. Recovery period
5. Latency
16.A lab procedure by which a bacteria takes the insulin gen to produce big amounts of insulin is called? Midterm 2020
1. Conjugation
2. Transduction
3. Transformation
4. Transposition
5. None of the options are correct
17.Which reason explain why gram bacteria are stain positive? Midterm 2020
1. Bacteria reduce the stain to produce the characteristic color
2. Cell wall traps the stain
3. Acetone treatment precipitates intercellular stain
4. Heat fixing undercover stainable proteins
5. Outer membrane absorbs the stain
18.What is the role of the agar ingredient in culture medium? Midterm 2020
1. It provides a nutritional base for bacterial metabolism
2. It solidifies the medium and provides a stable culture surface
3. It sterilizes the medium and prevents contamination
4. All options are correct
Unit 5
1. Penicillin:
1. Prevents the linkage between N-acetyl- glucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid.
2. Breaks the bonds between N-acetyl- glucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid
3. Prevents the formation of pentaglycine bridges
4. Breaks pentaglycine bridges
5. Perforates the plasma membrane of gram- positive bacteria
2. In which of the following situations might a broad spectrum drug be preferable to a narrow spectrum drug? Midterm 2020
1. when the patient is infected with an unknown pathogen
2. when the patient is immunocompromised
3. when gram-negative bacteria have infected an ordinarily sterile region of the body
4. in a well-organised region of the body
5. when the patient is in danger of going into shock from endotoxin poisoning
3. Which of the following would be most appropriate to reduce microorganisms in a wound?
1. an antiseptic
2. a disinfectant
3. UV radiation
4. alcohol
5. any sterilisation technique
4. Which of the following antibiotics inhibits translocation by binding to 50 S ribosomal subunit?
1. erythromycin
2. penicillin
3. vancomycin
4. gentamycin
5. ciprofloxacin
5. Mattresses and large equipment in hospitals are sterilised with:
1. Bisphenol
2. Halogens
3. Quaternary ammonium compounds
4. peroxygens
5. ethylene oxide
6. Vaccines and IV antibiotics are sterilised by:
1. UV light
2. autoclaving
3. filtration
4. microwaving
5. any of the above
7. To which of the following antibiotics is pseudomonas not resistant to?
1. beta-lactmas
2. aminoglycosides
3. chloramphenicol
4. glycopeptides
5. fluoroquinolones
8. What is the correct resistance mechanism for aminoglycosides?
1. Low activity PBPs
2. Modification of precurso
3. Modifying enzymes
4. efflux pumps
5. altered target enzymes
9. All of the following are bactericidal except:
1. Autoclaving
2. Glutaraldehyde
3. Hot air sterilisation
4. UV light
5. Freezing
10. Regarding peracetic acid which affirmation is not true?
1. Kills bacteria and fungi in less than 5 min
2. Is widely used in hospital instrumentation
3. do not kill endospores but is able to kill viruses
4. used in food industry
5. do not leave toxic residues
11. Which of the following compounds kills bacterial and virus in 10 minutes and pores in 3 to 10 hours: Midterm 2020
1. Quaternary ammonium compounds
2. Peracetic acid
3. Glutaraldehyde
4. Alcohol
5. Iodine
12. Heat treatment kills endospores of Clostridium botulinum, the causative agent of botulism, is canned food is a practice called: Midterm 2020
1. Commercial sterilisation
2. Degermining
3. Sanitisation
4. Desinfection
5. Sterilisation
13. Pasteurisation: Midterm 2020
1. Selectively kills mesophils in liquids
2. Relies on high temperature and high pressure to kill microorganisms
3. Can be considered to be a bacteriostatic control measure
4. Is mostly used in sterilisation
5. Selectively kills thermophiles in liquids
14. Match the antimicrobial daptomycin with its
15. Match the antimicrobial Vancomycin with its target: Midterm 2020
1. Membrane
2. Peptidoglycan synthesis
3. Ribosome
4. RNA synthesis
5. Topoisomerase
16. Match the antimicrobial Erythromycin with its target:
|
target: Midterm 2020 |
1. |
Ribosome |
|
|
1. |
Peptidoglycan |
2. |
Membrane |
|
2. |
Membrane |
3. |
Peptidoglycan synthesis |
|
3. |
Ribosome |
4. |
RNA synthesis |
17. Match the antimicrobial Ampicillin with its target:
1. Membrane
2. Peptidoglycan synthesis
3. Ribosome
4. RNA synthesis
5. Topoisomerase
|
Unit 6 |
1. For a given pathogen:
1. the ID50 will always be lower than the
LD50
2. the ID50 will always be higher than the
LD50
3. the ID50 and the LD50 will always be equal
4. the ID50 may be lower or higher than the
LD50
2. Toxoids are:
1. Superantigens
2. Inactivated toxins
3. Membrane disrupting toxins
4. A-B toxins
5. None of the above
3. Which of the following microorganisms is fastidious, capnophilic and is transmitted sexually?
1. Listeria monocytogenes
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Neisseria gonorrhoea
4. Neisseria meningitidis
5. None of the above
4. Bacterial leukocidins act by:
1. causing the lysis of RBCs
2. causing blood coagulation
3. dissolving blood clots
4. rupturing lysosomes
5. causing necrosis
5. How does the pyrogenic response work?
Midterm 2020
1. A gram negative bacteria is ingested by a macrophage, endotoxin is released in the macrophage cytosol, the macrophage produces IL-1, which resets the body’s t h e r m o s t a t t h ro u g h t h e a c t i o n o f prostaglandins.
2. A gram positive bacteria is ingested by a macrophage, endotoxin is released in the macrophage cytosol, the macrophage produces IL-1, which reset the body’s t h e r m o s t a t t h r o u g h t h e a c t i o n o f prostaglandins.
3. A gram negative bacteria is ingested by a macrophage, endotoxin is released in the macrophage cytosol, the macrophage produces prostaglandins which resets the body’s thermostat through the action of IL-1
4. none of the options are correct
6. Which of the following statements is true about endotoxins? Midterm 2020
1. They all work in different ways
2. They are all proteins
3. They are only produced by gram- negative bacteria
4. They are only produced by gram-positive bacteria
5. They are anchored to the peptidoglycan
7. Match the virulence factor Lipase with the appropriate consequences:
1. Activation of adenylate cyclase
2. Activation of cytokine production
3. Attachment
4. Invasion
5. Phagocytic escape
|
Unit 7 |
1. Genotypic diagnostic methods look for the presence of:
1. antigens
2. antibodies
3. DNA
4. RNA
5. both c and d
2. Precipitation is the interaction of … with … to form …
1. a soluble antigen / a soluble antibody /a soluble complex
2. a soluble antigen /a soluble antibody / an insoluble complex
3. an insoluble antigen /a soluble antibody /an insoluble complex
4. a soluble antigen / an insoluble antibody /
an insoluble complex
5. none of the above
3. Which of the following analysis can you perform to identify a virus in a blood sample?
1. agglutination
2. PCR
3. microscopic evaluation
4. growth in eosin methylene blue
5. growth in blood agar
4. Which of the following methods will you use to confirm suspected viral meningitis? Midterm
2020
1. PCR
2. ELISA
3. Kirby-Bauer method
4. Plasmid fingerprinting
5. Growth in selective media
5. A disadvantage of the total cell count method is: Midterm 2020
1. Dead cells are difficult to see under the microscope
2. Precision is difficult to achieve
3. Small cells are difficult to see under the microscope
4. It is not suitable for cell suspensions of low or high density
5. All of the above are disadvantages
6. Which of the following is used to generate diversity in the antibody repertoire? Midterm
2020
1. Presence of multiple variable gene segments that can be assembled in multiple different combinations
2. Addition of N nucleotides that are not encoded in the germ line
3. Exonuclease trimming of excess nucleotides at variable segment junctions
4. Ability to pair a single heavy chain with different light chains, so as to avoid generation of autoreactive antibodies
5. All of the above
|
Unit 8 |
1. Population with higher colonization rates of Staphylococcus aureus includes all the following except:
1. Doctors
2. Farm workers
3. Nurses
4. Diabetic patients
5. All of them show higher colonization rates
2. Regarding Lipopolysaccharide which of the following statements is incorrect: Midterm
2020
1. Present in all gram-negative bacteria
2. Is also known as endotoxin
3. It has also been implicated in surface adhesion
4. Induces a strong immune response in the host
5. It is part of the peptidoglycan
1. Scarlet fever is caused by:
1. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Streptococcus pyogene
Unit 9-10
3. Streptococcus agalactiae
4. Streptococcus aureus
5. Staphylococcus pyogenes
|
Unit 11-12-13 |
1. The exotoxin produced by Bacillius anthracis has 3 parts, protective antigen, lethal factor and edema factor. The function of this last one is:
1. Mediate endocytosis
2. Metaloprotease activity
3. Production of proinflammatory cytokines
4. An increase of cAMP
5. Resist phagocytosis
2. Which of the following is not a vector borne disease?
1. Bubonic plague
2. Trypanosomiasis
3. Malaria
4. Typhus
5. Anthrax
3. The protective antigen, edema factor and lethal factor are components of:
4. Listeria monocytogenes is:
1. A gram negative cocci
2. A gram positive cocci
3. A gram negative bacilli
4. A gram positive bacilli
5. A mycoplasma
5. Virulence factors of listeria monocytogenes:
1. Phospholipase C
2. Capsule
3. ActA
4. Hyaluronidase
5. neuraminidase
6. Which of the following is the reservoir for C.
Diptheria:
1. Rodents
2. Humans
3. Selfish
|
1. |
Shiga toxin |
4. |
Both A and B |
|
2. |
Vero toxin |
5. |
Both B and E |
|
3. |
Bacillus anthracis’ toxin |
||
|
4. |
Toxic shock syndrome toxin |
||
|
5. |
Cholera toxin |
|
Unit 14-15 |
1. Typical progression of pulmonary tuberculosis includes:
1. Pneumonia > granuloma formation with fibrosis > caseous necrosis > calcification
> cavity formation
2. Pneumonia > caseous necrosis >
calcification > cavity formation
3. Pneumonia > granuloma formation with fibrosis > calcification > cavity formation
4. Pneumonia > granuloma formation with fibrosis > caseous necrosis > cavity formation
5. Pneumonia > granuloma formation with fibrosis > caseous necrosis > calcification.
2. Which of the following is not a virulence factor of Nocardia sp.?
1. Facotr cord.
2. Catalase
3. Superoxide dismutase
4. Capsule
5. Inactivation of acid phosphatase
3. Caseous necrosis in the lungs occurs following infection with:
1. Hemophilus influenza
2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
3. Streptococcus pyogenes
4. Corunebacterium diptheRIA
5. Listeria monocytogenes
4. Select the appropriate treatment for the tuberculoid form of mycobacterium lepra:
1. Cloramphenicol
2. Dapsone plus rifampicine
3. Dapsone plus clofazimine
4. Isoniazid
5. rifampicin
5. Select from the list the correct virulence factor displayed by pathogenic species of Nocardia:
1. Capsule
2. Inhibit phagosome lysosome fusion
3. Enterotoxin
4. Peritrichous flagella
5. A and B
|
Unit 17 |
1. Salmonellosis is usually contracted by:
1. Drinking contamined water
2. Mosquito bites
3. Ingesting contamined mussels
4. Ingesting contamined poultry and eggs
5. Close contact with a reservoir
2. Mode of transmission of Yersinia enterocolifica:
1. Sexually transmitted
2. Oral-fecal route.
3. Direct contact person to person
4. Contamined food
5. Is a non-transmissible disease
|
1. Symptoms of cholera do not include:
1. Vomit
2. Diarrhea
3. Skin necrosis
4. Hypokalemia
5. None of the above are symptoms of cholera
2. Guillain-Barre syndrome is associated with:
1. Campylobacter rectus
2. Campylobacter fetus
3. Campylobacter coli
4. Campylobacter jejuni
5. Campylobacter curvus
|
Unit 20-21 |
1. Which of the following is not a virulence factor of Hemophilus influenza:
1. Fimbria
2. Polyribitol phosphate capsule
3. IgA protease
4. Urease
5. Neuraminidase
2. The non-encapsulated hemophilus influenza can cause:
1. Meningitis
2. Otitis
3. Septicemia
4. Epiglotitis
5. All of the above
3. Pyoderma is a skin condition caused by:
1. Shigella flexnerii
2. Yersinia pestis
3. Serratia marcescens
4. Salmonella enterica
5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Unit 22-23-24
1. Tularemia is a disease mostly of:
2. Pontiac fever is caused by:
|
1. |
Deer |
1. |
C. Difficile |
|
2. |
Rabbits |
2. |
S. Pyogenes |
|
3. |
Humans |
3. |
L. Pneumophilia |
|
4. |
Ticks |
4. |
H. Pylori |
|
5. |
None of the above |
5. |
C. perfrigens |
|
Unit 25-26 |
1. Which exotoxin binds to inhibitory neurons, blocking the release of glycine, and resulting in twitching paralysis?
3. Which of the following gram positive non- spore forming anaerobes can cause bacterial vaginosis:
|
1. |
Diphtheria toxin |
1. |
Actinomyces |
|
2. |
Tetanus toxin |
2. |
Peptostreptococcus |
|
3. |
Botulinum toxin |
3. |
Propionibacterium |
|
4. |
Cholera toxin |
4. |
Mobiluncus |
|
5. |
Salmonella toxin |
5. |
All of them |
2. Gax gangrene is caused by:
1. Clostridium perfringens
2. Clostridium difficile
4. Which exotoxin produces inhibitor of the spinal cord cells by blocking the release of neurotransmitters? Midterm 2020
|
3. |
Clostridium tetanii |
1. |
Diphtheria toxin |
|
4. |
Clostridium botulinum |
2. |
Tetanis toxin |
|
5. |
None of the above |
3. |
Botulinum toxin |
|
4. |
Cholera toxin |
||
|
5. |
Salmonella toxin |
|
Unit 27 |
1. Which microorganism is the etiological agent of Lyme disease?
1. Clostridium difficile
2. Borrelia burgdorferi
3. Leptospira interrogans
4. Treponema pallidum
5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
Unit 28-29 |
1. Mycoplasma spp are naturally not resistant to:
1. Penicillins
2. Erythromycin
3. Vancomycin
4. Cephalosporins
5. none of the above
2. For each bacterial species on the left choose the correct answer on the right:
1. Mycoplasma neumonia (a, c, d)
2. Mycoplasma horninis (b)
3. Mycoplasma genitalum (a, c)
4. Mycoplasma urealyticum (a)
a. Erythromycin b. Clyndamycin c. Tetracycline
d. Fluoroquinolones
Unit 32
1. The class IV in the viral classification stablished by David Baltimore corresponds to:
1. Double stranded DNA
2. Single stranded RNA (+) with a DNA intermediate
3. Double stranded RNA
4. Single stranded RNA (+)
5. Single stranded RNA (-)
|
Unit 41 |
1. What is the standard recommended therapy for tinea capitis?
1. Topical keconazole therapy
2. Ketoconazole shampoo
3. Oral terbinafine therapy
4. Oral griseofulvin therapy
|
Unit 42 |
1. Aflatoxins are mycotoxins commonly produced by:
1. Alternaria spp
2. All of the following are predisposing factors for invasive infections by candida species, except:
|
2. |
Aspergillus spp |
1. |
Systemic disease |
|
3. |
Penicillum spp |
2. |
Prematura birth |
|
4. |
Fusarium spp |
3. |
Occlusive clothing |
|
4. |
Alcoholism |
|
Unit 45 |
1. For each parasite choose the correct treatment:
1. Leishmania donovani (c)
2. Plasmodium falciparum (e)
3. Schistosoma mansoni (a)
4. Trypanosoma brucei (b)
5. Wuchereria Bancrofti (d)
(a) Praziquantel (b) Melarsoprol (c) Pentostam
(d) Diethylcarbamazine
(e) Meftloquine
|
Unit 48 |
1. For each species on the left choose the corresponding treatment on the right:
|
1. |
Tryphanosoma brucei (c) |
a. |
Antimony |
|
2. |
Plasmodium falcioarum (d) |
b. |
Praziquantel |
|
3. |
Schistosome japonica (b) |
c. |
Paziquantel |
|
4. |
Leishmania Donovani (a) |
d. |
Mefloquine |
|
General |
1. For each antibiotic choose the correct mode of action:
1. Vancomycin (d)
2. Ciprofloxacin (a)
3. Gentamycin (e)
4. Lynocomycin (b)
5. Azythromycin (c)
(a) Inhibit synthesis of nucleic acids (b) Inhibit peptidyl transferase activity (c) Inhibit translocation
(d) Inhibit cell wall production
(e) Inhibit protein synthesis
1. Which exotoxin produces irreversible inhibitor of the spinal cord cells by blocking the release of neurotransmitters
a) diphtheria toxin
b) tetanis toxin
c) botulinum toxin
d) cholera toxin
e) salmonella toxin
2. To which of the following antibiotics is pseudomonas NOT restitant to?
a) beta-lactams
b) aminoglycosides c) chloramphenicol d) Glycopeptides
e) Fluoroquinolones
3. What is the correct resistance mechanism for ahminoglycosides
a) low activity PBPs
b) modification of precursor
c) modifying enzymes
d) Efflux pumps
e) altered target enzymes
4. Selenite F broth
a) An enrichment media
b) selective media
c) differential media
d) A and B
e) B and C
5. For each bacterial species on the left chose the correct answer on there right:
|
1. |
Mycloplasma pneumonia |
A. erythromycin |
|
2. |
Mycoplamsa horninis |
B. Clyndamycin |
|
3. |
Mycoplama genitalum |
C. Tetracycline |
|
4. |
Mycoplama urealyticum |
D. FLuoroquinolones |
6. all of the following are bactericidal (vegetative forms) except
a) autoclaving
b) glutaraldehyde
c) hot air sterilisation
d) ultraviolet light
e) freezing
7. write the name of the etiological agent
a) trench fever:
b) oroya fever
c) cat-scratch disease:
d) endocarditis:
8. regarding peracetic acid which affirmation is NOT true?
a) kills bacteria and fungi in less than 5 minutes
b) is widely used in hospital instrumentation
c) do not kill endospores but is able to kill viruses
d) used in food industry
e) do not leave toxic residues
9. virulence factors of streptococcus pyogenes
a) capsule made of glutamic acid
b) toxin type A-B
c) protease
d) CAMP factor
e) hyaluronic acid capsule
10. select the non appropriate treatment for actinomycosis after surgical debridement
a) penicillin
b) tetracycline
c) erythromycin
d) clindamycin
e) choramphenicol
11. if decolorizer is left on too long in the Gram staining procedure, gram positive organisms will be stained and gram negative organisms will be stained
a) purple/ blue
b) purple / colorless
c) purple/ pink
d) Pink/ Pink
e) Colorless/ Pink
12. which of the following analysis can you perform to identify a virus in a blood sample
a) agglutination
b) PCR
c) microscopic evaluation
d) growth in eosin methylene blue
e) growth in blood agar
13. virulence factors of listeria monocytogenes
a) phospholipase C
b) Capsule
c) ActA
d) Hyaluronidase
e) Neuraminidase
14. For each species on the left choose the corresponding treatment on the right
|
1. |
Tryphanosoma brucei |
A. antimony |
|
2. |
Plasmodium falcioarum |
B. praziquantel |
|
3. |
Schistosome japonica |
C. Paziquantel |
|
4. |
Leishmania donovani |
D. mefloquine |
15. pontiac fever is caused by
a) C. difficile
b) S. pyogenes
c) L. pneumophilia
d) H. pylori
e) C. perfringens
16. Mode of transmission of Yersinia enterocolifica
a) sexually transmitted
b) oral-fecal route
c) direct contact person to person
d) contaminated food
e) is a non-transmissible disease
17. select clinical manifestations cause by H. pylori;
a) scalded skin syndrome
b) urinary infection
c) toxic shock syndrome d) cutaneous infections e) gastric ulcer
18. Prior to staining, smears of microorganism are heat-fixed in order to:
a) kill the organism
b) attach the organism firmly to the slide
c) kill the organism and attach the organism firmly to the slide
d) neither kill the organism nor attach the organism firmly to the slide
19. Which of the following is the reservoir for C. diphteriae
a) rodents b) humans c) selfish
d) both A and B
e) both B and E
20. Which of the following organisms is NOT a tertian parasite
a) plasmodium vivax
b) plasmodium ovale
c) plasmodium falciparum
d) plasmodium malariae
21. in a transfection experiment
a) a donor DNA molecule is taken up from the external environment and incorporated into the genome of the recipient cell
b) direct contact occurs between bacterial cells and DNA goes from donor to recipient
c) DNA goes from one bacteria to another via a phage
d) bacteria is transformed with DNA extracted from a bacterial virus
22. which of the following fungal pathogens is not a cause of systemic mycosis
a) histoplasmosis capsulate
b) coccidioides immitis
c) sporothrix achenckii
d) blastomycosis dermatitidis
e) paracoccidiolomycosis brasiliensis
Preguntas MICRO
|
Unit 1 |
1. Sir Alexander Fleming discovered
1. cephalosporin
2. penicillin
3. sulphonamides
4. a fungi, penicillium notarum
5. oral microbes
2. The bacteria that causes diphtheria is called corynebacterium diphtheria. Which of the following has the name of this bacterial species written in proper scientific form?
1. corynebacterium diphtheria
2. Corynebacterium Diphtheria
3. Corynebacterium diphtheria
4. corynebacterium Diphtheria
5. All of them are correct denominations
3. Which of the following scientist disproved spontaneous generation: Midterm 2020
1. Joseph Lister
2. Louis Pasteur
3. Robert Koch
4. Antoine van Leeuwenhoek
4. Which of the following scientist formulated the germ theory of disease: Midterm 2020
1. Joseph Lister
2. Robert Koch
3. Antony van Leeuwenhoek
4. Alexander Fleming
|
1. Which of the following is a fungal pathogen?
1. Vibrio cholerae
2. Leishmania major
3. Poliovirus
4. Candida albicans
5. Bordetella perturssis
|
Unit 3 |
1. Muramic acid is a component of:
1. Bacterial cell wall
2. Eukaryots cell wall
3. Archaea cell wall
4. Arcaea plasma membrane
5. Bacterial plasma membrane
2. Functions of fimbriae do not include:
1. attachment to other bacteria and/or host cells
2. avoid phagocytosis
3. avoid immune recognition
4. chemotaxis
5. all of them are functions of fimbriae
3. With regards to energy and carbon source usage all pathogenic bacteria are:
1. Litotrophs
2. Organotrophs
3. Autotrophs
4. Heterotrphs
5. There are pathogenic bacteria in all groups
4. Which of the following extracellular structures allows some bacteria to resits phagocytosis by phagocytic cells? Midterm 2020
1. Capsule
2. Fimbria
3. Sex pili
4. Flagella
5. Endotoxin
|
Unit 4 |
1. ….. bacteria lose their crystal violet when the decolosiser alcohol is added during the gram stain procedure
1. Gram-negative
2. Gram-positive
3. Acid-fast
4. Both gram-negative and gram-positive
2. Blood agar is: Midterm 2020
1. A selective media
2. an enriched media
3. an indicator media
4. an enrichment media
5. a synthetic media
3. The diagram below represents a hypothetical operon in the bacterium E.coli. The operon consists of two structural genes (A and B), which code for the enzymes A-ase and B-ase, respectively, and also includes P (promoter) and O (operator) regions as shown.
When a certain compount (X) is added to the growth medium of E. coli, the separate enzymes A-ase and B-ase are both synthesised at a 50-fold higher rate than in the absence of X. (X has a molecular weight of about 200). Which of the following statements is true of the operon described above?
5. All four genes (A, B, O and P) will be transcribed into an mRNA that will then be translated into four different proteins.
6. The 3’ end of the mRNA from the operon will correspond to the left end of the operon as drawn.
7. The 5’ end of the messenger from this operon will correspond to the right end of the operon as drawn.
8. The repressor for this operon binds just to the right of A
9. When RNA polymerase makes mRNA from this operon, it begins RNA synthesis just to the left of the gene A.
10. A non-sense mutation: Midterm 2020
1. Causes change in a single amino acid
2. changes a normal codon into a stop codon
3. alters a base byt does not change the amino acid
4. adds one amino acid
5. deletes one amino acid
11. Malachite green is used to stain:
1. Gram positives
2. Gram negatives
3. Capsule
4. Acid-fast microorganisms
5. Endospores
12.Seletine F borth: Midterm 2020
1. An enrichment media
2. selective media
3. differential media
4. A and B
5. B and C
13.Prior to staining, smears of microorganisms are heat-fixed in order to:
1. kill the organism
2. attach the organism firmly to the slide
3. kill the organism and attach the organism firmly to the slide
4. neither
14.Select the incorrect match: Midterm 2020
1. Selenite F broth: enrichment media
2. Chocolate agar: enriched media
3. Christensen’ urease medium: differential media
15.The period of time between infection and the onset of symptoms is called: Midterm 2020
1. Unapparent infection
2. The period of disease
3. Incubation period
4. Recovery period
5. Latency
16.A lab procedure by which a bacteria takes the insulin gen to produce big amounts of insulin is called? Midterm 2020
1. Conjugation
2. Transduction
3. Transformation
4. Transposition
5. None of the options are correct
17.Which reason explain why gram bacteria are stain positive? Midterm 2020
1. Bacteria reduce the stain to produce the characteristic color
2. Cell wall traps the stain
3. Acetone treatment precipitates intercellular stain
4. Heat fixing undercover stainable proteins
5. Outer membrane absorbs the stain
18.What is the role of the agar ingredient in culture medium? Midterm 2020
1. It provides a nutritional base for bacterial metabolism
2. It solidifies the medium and provides a stable culture surface
3. It sterilizes the medium and prevents contamination
4. All options are correct
Unit 5
1. Penicillin:
1. Prevents the linkage between N-acetyl- glucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid.
2. Breaks the bonds between N-acetyl- glucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid
3. Prevents the formation of pentaglycine bridges
4. Breaks pentaglycine bridges
5. Perforates the plasma membrane of gram- positive bacteria
2. In which of the following situations might a broad spectrum drug be preferable to a narrow spectrum drug? Midterm 2020
1. when the patient is infected with an unknown pathogen
2. when the patient is immunocompromised
3. when gram-negative bacteria have infected an ordinarily sterile region of the body
4. in a well-organised region of the body
5. when the patient is in danger of going into shock from endotoxin poisoning
3. Which of the following would be most appropriate to reduce microorganisms in a wound?
1. an antiseptic
2. a disinfectant
3. UV radiation
4. alcohol
5. any sterilisation technique
4. Which of the following antibiotics inhibits translocation by binding to 50 S ribosomal subunit?
1. erythromycin
2. penicillin
3. vancomycin
4. gentamycin
5. ciprofloxacin
5. Mattresses and large equipment in hospitals are sterilised with:
1. Bisphenol
2. Halogens
3. Quaternary ammonium compounds
4. peroxygens
5. ethylene oxide
6. Vaccines and IV antibiotics are sterilised by:
1. UV light
2. autoclaving
3. filtration
4. microwaving
5. any of the above
7. To which of the following antibiotics is pseudomonas not resistant to?
1. beta-lactmas
2. aminoglycosides
3. chloramphenicol
4. glycopeptides
5. fluoroquinolones
8. What is the correct resistance mechanism for aminoglycosides?
1. Low activity PBPs
2. Modification of precurso
3. Modifying enzymes
4. efflux pumps
5. altered target enzymes
9. All of the following are bactericidal except:
1. Autoclaving
2. Glutaraldehyde
3. Hot air sterilisation
4. UV light
5. Freezing
10. Regarding peracetic acid which affirmation is not true?
1. Kills bacteria and fungi in less than 5 min
2. Is widely used in hospital instrumentation
3. do not kill endospores but is able to kill viruses
4. used in food industry
5. do not leave toxic residues
11. Which of the following compounds kills bacterial and virus in 10 minutes and pores in 3 to 10 hours: Midterm 2020
1. Quaternary ammonium compounds
2. Peracetic acid
3. Glutaraldehyde
4. Alcohol
5. Iodine
12. Heat treatment kills endospores of Clostridium botulinum, the causative agent of botulism, is canned food is a practice called: Midterm 2020
1. Commercial sterilisation
2. Degermining
3. Sanitisation
4. Desinfection
5. Sterilisation
13. Pasteurisation: Midterm 2020
1. Selectively kills mesophils in liquids
2. Relies on high temperature and high pressure to kill microorganisms
3. Can be considered to be a bacteriostatic control measure
4. Is mostly used in sterilisation
5. Selectively kills thermophiles in liquids
14. Match the antimicrobial daptomycin with its
15. Match the antimicrobial Vancomycin with its target: Midterm 2020
1. Membrane
2. Peptidoglycan synthesis
3. Ribosome
4. RNA synthesis
5. Topoisomerase
16. Match the antimicrobial Erythromycin with its target:
|
target: Midterm 2020 |
1. |
Ribosome |
|
|
1. |
Peptidoglycan |
2. |
Membrane |
|
2. |
Membrane |
3. |
Peptidoglycan synthesis |
|
3. |
Ribosome |
4. |
RNA synthesis |
17. Match the antimicrobial Ampicillin with its target:
1. Membrane
2. Peptidoglycan synthesis
3. Ribosome
4. RNA synthesis
5. Topoisomerase
|
Unit 6 |
1. For a given pathogen:
1. the ID50 will always be lower than the
LD50
2. the ID50 will always be higher than the
LD50
3. the ID50 and the LD50 will always be equal
4. the ID50 may be lower or higher than the
LD50
2. Toxoids are:
1. Superantigens
2. Inactivated toxins
3. Membrane disrupting toxins
4. A-B toxins
5. None of the above
3. Which of the following microorganisms is fastidious, capnophilic and is transmitted sexually?
1. Listeria monocytogenes
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Neisseria gonorrhoea
4. Neisseria meningitidis
5. None of the above
4. Bacterial leukocidins act by:
1. causing the lysis of RBCs
2. causing blood coagulation
3. dissolving blood clots
4. rupturing lysosomes
5. causing necrosis
5. How does the pyrogenic response work?
Midterm 2020
1. A gram negative bacteria is ingested by a macrophage, endotoxin is released in the macrophage cytosol, the macrophage produces IL-1, which resets the body’s t h e r m o s t a t t h ro u g h t h e a c t i o n o f prostaglandins.
2. A gram positive bacteria is ingested by a macrophage, endotoxin is released in the macrophage cytosol, the macrophage produces IL-1, which reset the body’s t h e r m o s t a t t h r o u g h t h e a c t i o n o f prostaglandins.
3. A gram negative bacteria is ingested by a macrophage, endotoxin is released in the macrophage cytosol, the macrophage produces prostaglandins which resets the body’s thermostat through the action of IL-1
4. none of the options are correct
6. Which of the following statements is true about endotoxins? Midterm 2020
1. They all work in different ways
2. They are all proteins
3. They are only produced by gram- negative bacteria
4. They are only produced by gram-positive bacteria
5. They are anchored to the peptidoglycan
7. Match the virulence factor Lipase with the appropriate consequences:
1. Activation of adenylate cyclase
2. Activation of cytokine production
3. Attachment
4. Invasion
5. Phagocytic escape
|
Unit 7 |
1. Genotypic diagnostic methods look for the presence of:
1. antigens
2. antibodies
3. DNA
4. RNA
5. both c and d
2. Precipitation is the interaction of … with … to form …
1. a soluble antigen / a soluble antibody /a soluble complex
2. a soluble antigen /a soluble antibody / an insoluble complex
3. an insoluble antigen /a soluble antibody /an insoluble complex
4. a soluble antigen / an insoluble antibody /
an insoluble complex
5. none of the above
3. Which of the following analysis can you perform to identify a virus in a blood sample?
1. agglutination
2. PCR
3. microscopic evaluation
4. growth in eosin methylene blue
5. growth in blood agar
4. Which of the following methods will you use to confirm suspected viral meningitis? Midterm
2020
1. PCR
2. ELISA
3. Kirby-Bauer method
4. Plasmid fingerprinting
5. Growth in selective media
5. A disadvantage of the total cell count method is: Midterm 2020
1. Dead cells are difficult to see under the microscope
2. Precision is difficult to achieve
3. Small cells are difficult to see under the microscope
4. It is not suitable for cell suspensions of low or high density
5. All of the above are disadvantages
6. Which of the following is used to generate diversity in the antibody repertoire? Midterm
2020
1. Presence of multiple variable gene segments that can be assembled in multiple different combinations
2. Addition of N nucleotides that are not encoded in the germ line
3. Exonuclease trimming of excess nucleotides at variable segment junctions
4. Ability to pair a single heavy chain with different light chains, so as to avoid generation of autoreactive antibodies
5. All of the above
|
Unit 8 |
1. Population with higher colonization rates of Staphylococcus aureus includes all the following except:
1. Doctors
2. Farm workers
3. Nurses
4. Diabetic patients
5. All of them show higher colonization rates
2. Regarding Lipopolysaccharide which of the following statements is incorrect: Midterm
2020
1. Present in all gram-negative bacteria
2. Is also known as endotoxin
3. It has also been implicated in surface adhesion
4. Induces a strong immune response in the host
5. It is part of the peptidoglycan
1. Scarlet fever is caused by:
1. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Streptococcus pyogene
Unit 9-10
3. Streptococcus agalactiae
4. Streptococcus aureus
5. Staphylococcus pyogenes
|
Unit 11-12-13 |
1. The exotoxin produced by Bacillius anthracis has 3 parts, protective antigen, lethal factor and edema factor. The function of this last one is:
1. Mediate endocytosis
2. Metaloprotease activity
3. Production of proinflammatory cytokines
4. An increase of cAMP
5. Resist phagocytosis
2. Which of the following is not a vector borne disease?
1. Bubonic plague
2. Trypanosomiasis
3. Malaria
4. Typhus
5. Anthrax
3. The protective antigen, edema factor and lethal factor are components of:
4. Listeria monocytogenes is:
1. A gram negative cocci
2. A gram positive cocci
3. A gram negative bacilli
4. A gram positive bacilli
5. A mycoplasma
5. Virulence factors of listeria monocytogenes:
1. Phospholipase C
2. Capsule
3. ActA
4. Hyaluronidase
5. neuraminidase
6. Which of the following is the reservoir for C.
Diptheria:
1. Rodents
2. Humans
3. Selfish
|
1. |
Shiga toxin |
4. |
Both A and B |
|
2. |
Vero toxin |
5. |
Both B and E |
|
3. |
Bacillus anthracis’ toxin |
||
|
4. |
Toxic shock syndrome toxin |
||
|
5. |
Cholera toxin |
|
Unit 14-15 |
1. Typical progression of pulmonary tuberculosis includes:
1. Pneumonia > granuloma formation with fibrosis > caseous necrosis > calcification
> cavity formation
2. Pneumonia > caseous necrosis >
calcification > cavity formation
3. Pneumonia > granuloma formation with fibrosis > calcification > cavity formation
4. Pneumonia > granuloma formation with fibrosis > caseous necrosis > cavity formation
5. Pneumonia > granuloma formation with fibrosis > caseous necrosis > calcification.
2. Which of the following is not a virulence factor of Nocardia sp.?
1. Facotr cord.
2. Catalase
3. Superoxide dismutase
4. Capsule
5. Inactivation of acid phosphatase
3. Caseous necrosis in the lungs occurs following infection with:
1. Hemophilus influenza
2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
3. Streptococcus pyogenes
4. Corunebacterium diptheRIA
5. Listeria monocytogenes
4. Select the appropriate treatment for the tuberculoid form of mycobacterium lepra:
1. Cloramphenicol
2. Dapsone plus rifampicine
3. Dapsone plus clofazimine
4. Isoniazid
5. rifampicin
5. Select from the list the correct virulence factor displayed by pathogenic species of Nocardia:
1. Capsule
2. Inhibit phagosome lysosome fusion
3. Enterotoxin
4. Peritrichous flagella
5. A and B
|
Unit 17 |
1. Salmonellosis is usually contracted by:
1. Drinking contamined water
2. Mosquito bites
3. Ingesting contamined mussels
4. Ingesting contamined poultry and eggs
5. Close contact with a reservoir
2. Mode of transmission of Yersinia enterocolifica:
1. Sexually transmitted
2. Oral-fecal route.
3. Direct contact person to person
4. Contamined food
5. Is a non-transmissible disease
|
1. Symptoms of cholera do not include:
1. Vomit
2. Diarrhea
3. Skin necrosis
4. Hypokalemia
5. None of the above are symptoms of cholera
2. Guillain-Barre syndrome is associated with:
1. Campylobacter rectus
2. Campylobacter fetus
3. Campylobacter coli
4. Campylobacter jejuni
5. Campylobacter curvus
|
Unit 20-21 |
1. Which of the following is not a virulence factor of Hemophilus influenza:
1. Fimbria
2. Polyribitol phosphate capsule
3. IgA protease
4. Urease
5. Neuraminidase
2. The non-encapsulated hemophilus influenza can cause:
1. Meningitis
2. Otitis
3. Septicemia
4. Epiglotitis
5. All of the above
3. Pyoderma is a skin condition caused by:
1. Shigella flexnerii
2. Yersinia pestis
3. Serratia marcescens
4. Salmonella enterica
5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Unit 22-23-24
1. Tularemia is a disease mostly of:
2. Pontiac fever is caused by:
|
1. |
Deer |
1. |
C. Difficile |
|
2. |
Rabbits |
2. |
S. Pyogenes |
|
3. |
Humans |
3. |
L. Pneumophilia |
|
4. |
Ticks |
4. |
H. Pylori |
|
5. |
None of the above |
5. |
C. perfrigens |
|
Unit 25-26 |
1. Which exotoxin binds to inhibitory neurons, blocking the release of glycine, and resulting in twitching paralysis?
3. Which of the following gram positive non- spore forming anaerobes can cause bacterial vaginosis:
|
1. |
Diphtheria toxin |
1. |
Actinomyces |
|
2. |
Tetanus toxin |
2. |
Peptostreptococcus |
|
3. |
Botulinum toxin |
3. |
Propionibacterium |
|
4. |
Cholera toxin |
4. |
Mobiluncus |
|
5. |
Salmonella toxin |
5. |
All of them |
2. Gax gangrene is caused by:
1. Clostridium perfringens
2. Clostridium difficile
4. Which exotoxin produces inhibitor of the spinal cord cells by blocking the release of neurotransmitters? Midterm 2020
|
3. |
Clostridium tetanii |
1. |
Diphtheria toxin |
|
4. |
Clostridium botulinum |
2. |
Tetanis toxin |
|
5. |
None of the above |
3. |
Botulinum toxin |
|
4. |
Cholera toxin |
||
|
5. |
Salmonella toxin |
|
Unit 27 |
1. Which microorganism is the etiological agent of Lyme disease?
1. Clostridium difficile
2. Borrelia burgdorferi
3. Leptospira interrogans
4. Treponema pallidum
5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
Unit 28-29 |
1. Mycoplasma spp are naturally not resistant to:
1. Penicillins
2. Erythromycin
3. Vancomycin
4. Cephalosporins
5. none of the above
2. For each bacterial species on the left choose the correct answer on the right:
1. Mycoplasma neumonia (a, c, d)
2. Mycoplasma horninis (b)
3. Mycoplasma genitalum (a, c)
4. Mycoplasma urealyticum (a)
a. Erythromycin b. Clyndamycin c. Tetracycline
d. Fluoroquinolones
Unit 32
1. The class IV in the viral classification stablished by David Baltimore corresponds to:
1. Double stranded DNA
2. Single stranded RNA (+) with a DNA intermediate
3. Double stranded RNA
4. Single stranded RNA (+)
5. Single stranded RNA (-)
|
Unit 41 |
1. What is the standard recommended therapy for tinea capitis?
1. Topical keconazole therapy
2. Ketoconazole shampoo
3. Oral terbinafine therapy
4. Oral griseofulvin therapy
|
Unit 42 |
1. Aflatoxins are mycotoxins commonly produced by:
1. Alternaria spp
2. All of the following are predisposing factors for invasive infections by candida species, except:
|
2. |
Aspergillus spp |
1. |
Systemic disease |
|
3. |
Penicillum spp |
2. |
Prematura birth |
|
4. |
Fusarium spp |
3. |
Occlusive clothing |
|
4. |
Alcoholism |
|
Unit 45 |
1. For each parasite choose the correct treatment:
1. Leishmania donovani (c)
2. Plasmodium falciparum (e)
3. Schistosoma mansoni (a)
4. Trypanosoma brucei (b)
5. Wuchereria Bancrofti (d)
(a) Praziquantel (b) Melarsoprol (c) Pentostam
(d) Diethylcarbamazine
(e) Meftloquine
|
Unit 48 |
1. For each species on the left choose the corresponding treatment on the right:
|
1. |
Tryphanosoma brucei (c) |
a. |
Antimony |
|
2. |
Plasmodium falcioarum (d) |
b. |
Praziquantel |
|
3. |
Schistosome japonica (b) |
c. |
Paziquantel |
|
4. |
Leishmania Donovani (a) |
d. |
Mefloquine |
|
General |
1. For each antibiotic choose the correct mode of action:
1. Vancomycin (d)
2. Ciprofloxacin (a)
3. Gentamycin (e)
4. Lynocomycin (b)
5. Azythromycin (c)
(a) Inhibit synthesis of nucleic acids (b) Inhibit peptidyl transferase activity (c) Inhibit translocation
(d) Inhibit cell wall production
(e) Inhibit protein synthesis
0
1065