BSN 1004 EVOLVE+ TESTBANK and passing grades study material
Questions
Which of the following is a characteristic of a malignant tumour?
A. It is encapsulated.
B. It will not invade local tissues. C. It is well differentiated.
D. It can spread far from the tissue of origin. Correct
Malignant tumours have no capsule, which allows them to spread readily. They have rapid growth rates and specific microscopic alterations. They are poorly differentiated and spread to distant tissues.
Cancer of the connective tissue is referred to as which of the following?
A. Sarcoma Correct
Sarcoma is a cancer of mesenchymal tissue (including connective tissue, muscle, and bone). Carcinoma is a cancer of epithelial tissue. Leukemia is a cancer of blood-forming cells. Lymphoma is a cancer of lymphatic tissue.
B. Leukemia C. Lymphoma D. Carcinoma
A cancerous tumour that is very poorly differentiated is referred to using which following term?
A. Pleomorphic
B. Anaplasia Correct
Anaplasia means the absence of differentiation. Pleomorphic describes anaplastic cells of varying size and shape. Immortal refers to a cancerous cell’s ability to live indefinitely. Independent refers to the cancerous cell’s independence from normal cell controls.
C. Immortal
D. Independent
Which of the following is the serum marker used to evaluate a tumour of the adrenal gland?
A. PSA B. AFP
C. Catecholamines Correct
Catecholamines are secreted by the adrenal medulla and are found in excess if there is a tumour. PSA is the prostate-specific antigen and is used to detect prostate cancer. AFP is alpha fetoprotein and is used to detect liver and germ cell cancers. DNA is the genetic material in cells, not a serum marker.
D. DNA
Which gene in its normal state negatively regulates cell proliferation?
A. Oncogenes
B. Tumour-suppressor genes Correct
Tumour-suppressor genes encode proteins that in their normal state negatively regulate proliferation. Oncogenes are mutant genes that in their normal nonmutant state direct synthesis of protein that positively accelerates proliferation. Telomeres are protective ends, or caps, on each chromosome. Proto- oncogene is an oncogene in its nonmutant state.
C. Proto-oncogenes
D. Telomeres
A mutation that occurs due to changes in nucleotide base pairs is described as which of the following?
A. Point mutation Correct
Point mutations are small changes in one or a few nucleotides. Translocations occur when a piece of one chromosome translocates to another chromosome. Gene amplification can result in duplication of a small piece of a chromosome over and over again. Pleomorphic describes anaplastic cells.
B. Translocation
C. Gene amplification
D. Pleomorphic
The process whereby tumour cells generate their own blood supply is referred to as which of the following?
A. Carcinogenesis
B. Angiogenesis Correct
Angiogenesis is the generation of new blood vessels. Thrombospondin is a protein that inhibits the growth of new blood cells. Carcinogenesis is the development of cancerous cells. Transforming growth factor is a proangiogenic factor (aids in the development of blood vessels).
C. Transforming growth factor
D. Thrombospondin
Genomic instability refers to which of the following?
A. A decreased ability to mutate during the metaphase of the cell life cycle
B. Increased tendency for genome alterations and mutability during cell life cycles Correct
Genomic instability refers to an increased tendency of alteration mutability in the genome during the life cycle of cells. Inherited and acquired mutations in caretaker genes that protect the integrity of the genome and DNA repair increase the level of genomic instability and risk for developing cancer.
C. Genetic weaknesses predispose the development of solid tumours
D. Absence of tumour suppression cells that result in excessive cell proliferation
When a patient is diagnosed with a benign tumour, the tumour most likely has which of the following features? (Select all that apply.)
A. Well encapsulated Correct B. Well differentiated Correct C. Absence of normal tissue
D. Spreading to regional lymph nodes
E. Generally resistant to treatment modalities
Benign tumours are well encapsulated and well differentiated, but actually do retain some normal tissue. They do not spread to regional lymph nodes, nor are they generally resistant to treatment.
Research has shown a connection between the development of cancer and which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A. Epstein-Barr virus Correct B. Hepatitis B virus Correct C. Hepatitis C virus Correct D. Hepatitis A virus
E. Human papillomavirus Correct
Hepatitis B and hepatitis C have been linked to the development of liver cancer, usually due to chronic inflammation. Epstein-Barr virus can lead to B-cell lymphomas in those patients who are immunosuppressed. Human papillomavirus has been linked to cervical, anogenital, and penile cancers. Research has not shown a link between cancer and the hepatitis A virus.
Which of the following is true in relation to tobacco smoking?
A. It is responsible for 10% of all cancer deaths in developed countries.
B. It is associated with the upper digestive tract and lower urinary tract carcinomas. Correct
Tobacco smoking is responsible for cancers of the lung; upper aerodigestive tract (oral cavity, pharynx, larynx, nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, esophagus, and stomach); lower urinary tract (renal pelvis, penis, and bladder); kidney; pancreas; cervix; and uterus, as well as acute myeloid leukemia. It also causes damage to blood
vessels and a number of other diseases. It causes 6 million deaths a year worldwide. It is responsible for approximately 25% of cancer deaths.
C. It is dangerous primarily to sensitive bronchial lung tissue. D. IT is responsible for 10 000 deaths a year worldwide.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding ultraviolet light? E. It induces the tumour necrosis factor. Correct
Ultraviolet light induces tumour necrosis factor. The duration, intensity, and wavelength content all affect exposure. It can cause the formation of basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas. Ozone depletion is increasing the intensity of exposure.
F. Damage is not affected by wavelength. G. It causes the formation of sarcomas.
H. Exposure has little effect on ozone depletion.
When a patient has been diagnosed with a basal cell carcinoma, which one of the following is most likely correct? A. The lesion is most likely found on the patient’s trunk.
B. The patient is likely dark skinned and brown eyed. C. The patient has rarely experienced sunburns.
D. The lesion is most likely found on the head and neck. Correct
Basal cell carcinoma is typically found on sun-exposed areas in those with fair complexions. The patients often have light hair and eyes, and they tend to sunburn vs. tan.
Which of the following is most likely true regarding a female patient who is diagnosed with melanoma? A. The patient is experiencing a lesion on the back of the legs. Correct
Melanoma is often found on the skin on the head, the neck, between the shoulders, and the hips in men. In women, it is more commonly found on the skin of the lower legs, between the shoulders, and on the hips. The mortality rate is 2 to 3%. White people get melanoma 10 times as often as black, Latin American, or Asian people. Those affected are often fair skinned and unable to tan. They develop nevi easily or freckle.
B. The patient is of Asian descent. C. The patient is able to tan well.
D. The patient is experiencing a high mortality risk factor.
Long-term exposure to asbestos is most likely to result in the development of cancer of which of the following? A. Bladder
B. Kidney
C. Stomach
D. Lung Correct
Asbestos increases the risk for mesothelioma and lung cancer and possibly other cancers. Research has not shown a strong link between asbestos exposure and the remaining cancers.
Consuming which of the following foods increases the risk of colorectal cancer? A. Red meat Correct
Individuals who consume diets high in red meat and processed meat, and who carry certain genetic polymorphisms, have an increased risk of developing colorectal cancer. Diets high in isothiocyanates (from cruciferous vegetables) may decrease the risk of cancer.
B. Red cabbage
C. Olive oil
D. Rice
Exposure to arsenic increases the risk for developing cancer in which of the following organs? A. Bladder Correct
There is increased risk for bladder, skin, and lung cancers following consumption of water with high levels of arsenic (generally greater than 200 mcg/L). Evidence for cancers of the liver, colon, and kidney is weaker. There is no evidence that arsenic increases the risk of cancer of breast, skin, or gall bladder.
B. Breast
C. Skin
D. Gall bladder
Excessive alcohol consumption is connected with cancer of which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A. Oral cavity Correct
B. Larynx Correct
C. Spleen
D. Liver Correct
E. Esophagus Correct
Overall, there are strong data linking alcohol with cancers of the mouth, pharynx, larynx, esophagus, liver, colorectum, and breast.
The use of vaccines for which of the following conditions may decrease the risk of cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A. Hepatitis B Correct
B. Human papillomavirus (HPV) Correct
C. HIV
D. Helicobacter pylori
E. Hepatitis C Correct
Certain vaccines can help reduce the risk for some infections associated with cancer (e.g., human papillomavirus and hepatitis B and C). There is no vaccine for HIV or H. pylori.
Which cancers are linked to obesity and a higher risk of death? (Select all that apply.)
A. Esophageal Correct
B. Stomach Correct C. Colorectal Correct D. Brain
E. Thyroid
The following cancers have all been linked to obesity and higher rates of death: esophageal, stomach, colorectal, liver, breast, gallbladder, pancreatic, prostate, kidney, ovarian, lymphoma, cervical, and leukemia. Research has not found a strong link between obesity and a higher risk of death with brain and thyroid cancers.
Questions
Which of the following statements is MOST TRUE in relation to childhood cancers? A. They originate immediately after birth.
B. They affect the tissues in the brain.
C. They originate from the mesodermal germ layer. Correct
Most childhood cancers originate from the mesodermal germ layer, which develops into connective tissue, bone, cartilage, muscle, blood, blood vessels, gonads, kidney, and the lymphatic system. Thus, the more common childhood cancers are leukemias, sarcomas, and embryonic tumours.
D. They result in extensive forms of lung cancer.
A childhood embryonic tumour MOST LIKELY includes which of the following? A. Mature cells
B. Undifferentiated cells Correct
They contain cells that are not well differentiated, immature cells. This means they are unable to mature or differentiate into fully developed functional cells. Carcinoma cells are cancer cells that may or may not be present in such tumours.
C. Carcinoma cells
D. Functional cells
The most common malignancy in children is which of the following? A. Leukemia Correct
Leukemia is by far the most common malignancy in children. Malignancies occur in the nervous system, kidneys, and soft tissue, but are rare.
B. In the nervous system
C. In the kidney
D. In soft tissue
Which of the following viruses has been linked with the development of cancer? A. Measles
B. Epstein-Barr Correct
Epstein-Barr has been linked with the development of Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, and Hodgkin disease. While viruses may play a role in the development of cancer, measles, mumps, and influenza are not linked by evidence to known childhood cancers.
C. Mumps
D. Influenza
The current belief is that the survival rates for childhood cancer survivors have improved due to which of the following measures?
A. Screening for such cancers has become more sensitive. B. The use of multimodal treatment. Correct
Improved cancer survival for children includes the use of combination chemotherapy or multimodal treatment for
solid childhood tumours and improvements in nursing and supportive care. The development of research centres for comprehensive childhood cancer treatment and cooperative study groups also have facilitated refinements in treatment protocols and data sharing, leading to improved survival rates.
C. Radiology has become a viable treatment modality.
D. The general health of children has improved over the last century.
Which of the following children should be monitored closely for the symptomatology of leukemia? A. 2-year-old diagnosed with Down syndrome Correct
Children with Down syndrome are at increased risk for developing leukemia. Currently, there is no research to support a connection between the other conditions and the development of leukemia.
B. 18-month-old with a heart valve defect
C. 3-year-old with a congenital bone disorder
D. 8-month-old with a cleft lip and cleft palate
The first risk factor to be considered when a child is diagnosed with a carcinoma is which of the following? A. Prenatal exposure Correct
Very few environmental and lifestyle factors have been linked to pediatric malignancies. More data are emerging that the developing child may be affected by epigenetic modifications resulting from parental exposures before conception, exposures in utero, and nutrition during early life.
B. The presence of an autoimmune disorder
C. Exposure to an environmental toxin
D. A recent viral illness
Which form of childhood cancer is a child who is receiving immunosuppressive therapy after a lung transplant at most risk for developing?
A. Leukemia
B. Lymphoma Correct
Immunosuppressive agents increase the child’s risk for developing lymphoma during childhood. This risk is not associated with the remaining options.
C. Hepatocellular carcinoma
D. Neuroblastoma
Which statement is correct when considering where a childhood tumour is most likely to develop? A. Lungs
B. Kidneys
C. Brain Correct
The most common type of childhood cancer is leukemia, and the second most common type of pediatric malignancy is a tumour involving the brain or central nervous system.
D. Skin
A survivor of a childhood cancer is at risk for developing a cancer later in life related to which of the following factors? (Select all that apply.)
A. Being under 2 years of age when original cancer occurred
B. Receiving chemotherapy for the original cancer Correct
C. Having a family history of the original cancer Correct
D. Receiving radiation for the original cancer Correct
E. An original cancer being a soft tissue sarcoma Correct
This risk may be associated with a variety of factors, including previous chemotherapy or radiotherapy, genetic factors, and type of primary cancer (e.g., soft tissue sarcoma, neuroblastoma). Currently, there is no known risk associated specifically with age.
Questions
The central nervous system contains which of the following? A. Brain Correct
The brain is part of the central nervous system, while the remaining structures are contained in the peripheral nervous system.
B. Somatic nervous system
C. Afferent pathways
D. Cranial nerves
Which of the following is composed of endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes? A. Nissl substances Correct
The Nissl substances, endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes, are involved in protein synthesis. Microfilaments are composed of structural proteins and responsible for support. The dendrites are extensions that carry nerve impulses toward the cell body. Microtubules are involved in the transport of cellular products.
B. Dendrities
C. Microfilaments
D. Microtubules
Which is an insulating substance for the neuron?
A. Schwann cells
B. Myelin Correct
Myelin is an insulating substance. Schwann and neuroglial cells provide structural support and nutrition for the neurons. The nodes of Ranvier are interruptions at regular intervals that occur in the myelin.
C. Neuroglial cells
D. Nodes of Ranvier
Successive, rapid impulses received from a single neuron on the same synapse are best described as which of the following?
A. Temporal summation Correct
Temporal summation refers to the effects of successive, rapid impulses received from a single neuron on the same synapse. Spatial summation refers to the combined effect of impulses from a number of neurons on a single synapse at the same time. Facilitation refers to the effects of excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) on the plasma membrane potential. Actuation is not a process that relates to neural impulse transmission.
B. Spatial summation
C. Actuation
D. Facilitation
The midbrain contains which of the following? A. Cerebral hemisphere
B. Tegmentum Correct
The tegmentum, corpora quadrigemina, and basis pedunculi are all part of the midbrain. The cerebral hemispheres are part of the forebrain. The brainstem is composed of the midbrain, medulla oblongata, and pons. The cerebellum is located in the hindbrain.
C. Cerebellum
D. Medulla oblongata
Which part of the brain contains all cell bodies and dendrites of neurons? A. Gyri
B. Sulci
C. White matter
D. Grey matter Correct
The grey matter contains cell bodies and dendrites of neurons. The white matter contains myelinated nerve fibres. The gyri are the convolutions of the cerebrum. The sulci are the grooves between adjacent gyri.
Which of the following is true related to the Broca speech area? A. It makes receptive responses possible.
B. It is responsible for motor speech. Correct
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