Chapter 15: Trauma, Mobile, and Surgical Radiography Test Bank
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MULTIPLE CHOICE1. Which of the following imaging modalities is often used to diagnose pulmonary emboli? a. Ultrasoundb. MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)c. Nuclear medicined. None of the above
ANS: C REF: 572
2. Which imaging modality is often used to diagnose an ectopic pregnancy?a. Ultrasoundb. Nuclear medicinec. MRId. CT (computed tomography)
ANS: A REF: 572
3. Which of the following terms best describes a partial dislocation of a joint?a. Subluxationb. Luxationc. Appositiond. Angulation
ANS: A REF: 572
4. A bruise type of injury with a possible avulsion fracture is termed a(n):a. subluxation.b. apposition.c. contusion.d. luxation.
ANS: C REF: 572
5. Which term describes a misalignment of a distal fracture fragment that is angled toward the midline?a. Anatomic appositionb. Varus deformityc. Valgus deformityd. Distraction
ANS: B REF: 573
6. Which type of fracture is defined as being crushed at the site of impact, producing two or more fragments? a. Comminutedb. Compoundc. Completed. Torus
ANS: A REF: 574
7. Which of the following fractures is described as an incomplete fracture with the cortex broken on one side of the bone? a. Bayonetb. Torusc. Avulsiond. Greenstick
ANS: D REF: 573
8. Which of the following is not a fracture but a subluxation?a. Hutchinson’sb. Nursemaids’ elbowc. Monteggia’sd. None of the above
ANS: B REF: 572
9. Which of the following fractures is often called a reverse Colles’ with anterior displacement of the distal radius?a. Pott’sb. Trimalleolarc. Tripodd. Smith’s
ANS: D REF: 574
10. Which of the following fractures involves the distal fifth metacarpal?a. Boxer’sb. Barton’sc. Pott’sd. Smith’s
ANS: A REF: 574
11. Which of the following fractures usually involves the spine?a. Depressedb. Comminutedc. Stellated. Compression
ANS: D REF: 575
12. Which type of procedure would be performed in surgery to realign a fracture?a. Open reductionb. Closed reductionc. Internal fixationd. Compound reduction
ANS: A REF: 576
13. Generally, only one joint needs to be included for follow-up studies of a long bone fracture. a. True b. False
ANS: A REF: 571
14. A fracture in which the bone is broken into three pieces, with the middle fragment fractured at both ends, is termed _____ fracture.a. segmentalb. butterflyc. splinteredd. impacted
ANS: A REF: 574
15. A fracture that occurs through the pedicles of the axis (C2), with or without displacement of C2 or C3, is termed _____ fracture.a. odontoidb. clay shoveler’sc. Jeffersond. hangman’s
ANS: D REF: 574
16. Which fracture is also called a “march fracture”?a. Pottb. Stressc. Trimalleolard. Burst
ANS: B REF: 575
17. A fragment of bone that is separated or pulled away by the attached tendon or ligament is termed a(n) _____ fracture.a. avulsionb. chipc. depressedd. epiphyseal
ANS: A REF: 575
18. With high-level fluoroscopy (HLF), the maximum exposure rate cannot exceed 20 R/min. a. True b. False
ANS: A REF: 568
19. Because of radiation exposure to the head and neck region, the C-arm should not be placed in the posteroanterior (PA) projection tube alignment.a. Trueb. False
ANS: B REF: 568-569
20. _____ is used to create an x-ray beam that activates at timed increments to reduce exposure during C-arm fluoroscopy.a. Pulse modeb. Road-mappingc. Magnification moded. Boost digital spot
ANS: A REF: 567
21. A self-propelled, battery-driven mobile x-ray unit will generally go up a maximum incline of: a. 2°.b. 7°.c. 10°.d. 15°.
ANS: B REF: 565
22. What is the minimum distance a technologist should stand away from the x-ray tube during an exposure when using a mobile x-ray unit?a. 1 footb. 3 feetc. 6 feetd. 10 feet
ANS: C REF: 568
23. Which one of the three cardinal rules of radiation protection is the most effective means of reducing exposure during mobile and surgical procedures?a. Timeb. Shieldingc. Distanced. None of the above; all are equally effective.
ANS: C REF: 568
24. Which of the C-arm orientations in general results in the greatest exposure to the operator’s head region if the distance from the patient is unchanged (patient is supine)?a. Anteroposterior (AP) projection (x-ray tube above anatomy)b. PA projection (x-ray tube below anatomy)c. PA, 30° tilt away from operatord. No significant difference
ANS: A REF: 568
25. A radiographer receives 400 mR/hr standing 1 foot from a C-arm fluoroscopy unit. What is the exposure rate if the radiographer moves to a distance of 3 feet?a. 100 to 150 mR/hrb. 75 to 100 mR/hrc. 25 to 50 mR/hrd. Less than 10 mR/hr
ANS: C REF: 568
26. Where should the operator (or surgeon) stand when using a C-arm fluoroscopy unit in a horizontal central ray (CR) position?a. Intensifier end of the C-armb. X-ray tube end of the C-armc. Midway between the x-ray tube and the intensifierd. Must stand back at least 6 feet from the patient
ANS: A REF: 568
27. A 30° tilt of the C-arm x-ray tube from the vertical position will increase radiation exposure to the face and neck region of the operator standing next to the C-arm by approximately a factor of:a. 2.b. 3.c. 4.d. 6.
ANS: C REF: 568
28. How should the CR be aligned for an AP projection of the chest?a. Perpendicular to the long axis of the sternumb. Perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor (IR)c. Perpendicular to the midcoronal planed. Parallel to the midsagittal plane
ANS: A REF: 577
29. A patient enters the emergency department (ED) with a possible pneumothorax of the right lung. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect. Which specific position should be performed to diagnose this condition?a. Left lateral decubitusb. Right lateral decubitusc. Ventral decubitusd. AP supine
ANS: A REF: 580
30. A patient enters the ED with a possible fractured sternum. The patient is supine and unable to lie prone. Which of the following routines best demonstrates the sternum?a. Right posterior oblique (RPO) and lateral recumbentb. AP and horizontal beam lateralc. AP and LPOd. LPO and horizontal beam lateral
ANS: D REF: 571 | 578
31. How much rotation is required for an AP oblique projection of the sternum on a hypersthenic patient?
a. 20° b. 25° c. 30° d. 15° ANS: D REF: 578
32. What type of “holding breath” instructions should be given for an AP projection (patient supine) of the ribs located above the diaphragm?a. Expose upon inspiration.b. Expose upon expiration.c. Suspend respiration and expose.d. Perform a breathing technique.
ANS: A REF: 579
33. A patient enters the ED with severe trauma to the abdomen. The ED physician is concerned about bleeding in the abdomen with associated possible free intra-abdominal air. The patient is unable to stand or sit erect. Which position best demonstrates the condition?a. AP supineb. Dorsal decubitusc. Ventral decubitusd. Lateral decubitus
ANS: D REF: 577
34. Which of the following positions or projections best demonstrates free intra-abdominal air on the patient who cannot stand or sit erect?a. Right lateral decubitusb. AP supinec. Left lateral decubitusd. Dorsal decubitus
ANS: C REF: 580
35. A patient comes to the ED with a possible abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following projections of the abdomen best demonstrates it?a. Erect abdomenb. Dorsal decubitusc. Right lateral decubitusd. AP kidneys, ureter, bladder (KUB)—supine
Check also: Test Bank for Bontragers Textbook of Radiographic Positioning and Related Anatomy 10th Edition by Lampignano
ANS: B REF: 580
36. What is the primary disadvantage of performing a PA thumb over an AP projection?a. May not demonstrate the entire thumbb. Is more difficult to positionc. Results in an increase in object image receptor distance (OID)d. Requires the use of a higher kV and greater exposure to patient
ANS: C REF: 581
37. Postreduction projections of the upper and lower limbs generally require only the joint nearest to the fracture site.a. Trueb. False
ANS: A REF: 582
38. A patient enters the ED with a fractured forearm. The physician reduces the fracture and places a fiberglass cast on the forearm. The initial analog technique was 55 kV and 5 mAs. Which of the following technical factors is best for the postreduction study?a. 59 kV; 5 mAsb. 62 kV; 5 mAsc. 67 kV; 5 mAsd. 72 kV; 5 mAs
ANS: A REF: 582
39. How should the CR be aligned for a trauma PA projection of the elbow?a. Perpendicular to the interepicondylar planeb. Parallel to the interepicondylar planec. Perpendicular to the palmar surface of the handd. None of the above; projection should be taken AP, not PA.
ANS: A REF: 583
40. A patient enters the ED with a possible shoulder dislocation. Because of his multiple injuries, the patient is unable to stand or sit erect. Which of the following routines best demonstrates the dislocation?a. AP external and internal rotation projectionsb. AP and transaxillary projectionsc. AP and horizontal beam transthoracic lateral projectionsd. AP and AP axial projections
ANS: C REF: 585
41. A patient enters the ED with a possible fractured scapula. Because of her multiple injuries, the patient is on a backboard. Which of the following techniques is most helpful in providing a lateral view of the scapula if the patient is unable to rotate the affected shoulder adequately?a. Perform a horizontal beam lateral.b. Angle the CR parallel to the scapular spine.c. Angle the CR lateromedial and parallel to the scapular body.d. Angle the CR mediolateral and perpendicular to the scapular body.
ANS: C REF: 585
42. How much rotation of the body is generally required for an AP oblique, lateral scapular Y projection?a. 10° to 15° from AP projectionb. 25° to 30° from AP projectionc. 35° to 40° from AP projectiond. 45° to 60° from AP projection
ANS: B REF: 585
43. What CR angulation should be used for an AP axial projection of the clavicle on an asthenic patient?a. 10° cephaladb. 15° caudalc. 20° cephaladd. 40° cephalad
ANS: C REF: 585
44. An ankle series would best demonstrate a Pott fracture.a. Trueb. False
ANS: A REF: 575 | 587
45. A patient’s lower leg is in traction in the hospital bed. The orthopedic surgeon orders an AP mortise projection of the ankle. Because of the traction, the lower leg cannot be rotated. The leg is in a straight “foot up” position. What can the radiographer do to achieve this AP mortise projection?a. Perform a horizontal beam lateral projection.b. Perform a CR 15° to 20° lateromedial angle AP projection.c. Perform a CR 15° to 2° mediolateral angle AP projection.d. Loosen the traction device and oblique the ankle.
ANS: B REF: 587
46. A patient enters the ED on a backboard with multiple injuries, including an injury to the knee region with a possible stellate fracture noted on the examination requisition. Which of the following routines best demonstrates this injury safely?a. AP and 30° flexed lateral knee projectionsb. AP and 30° flexed lateral knee projections to include the proximal tibia-fibulac. AP medial oblique and 30° flexed lateral knee projectionsd. AP and horizontal beam lateral projections of the knee and patella without knee flexion
ANS: D REF: 588
47. Which of the following projections best produces an unobstructed view of the fibular head and neck without rotation of the lower leg (with patient in supine position)?a. AP knee projectionb. Horizontal beam lateral projectionc. AP projection with a CR 45° mediolateral angled. AP projection with a CR 45° lateromedial angle
ANS: D REF: 588
48. How is the CR aligned for an axiolateral, inferosuperior (Danelius-Miller) projection? a. Parallel to femoral neck b. Perpendicular to femoral neck
At a 20° angle to the femoral neckAt a 45° angle to the femoral neck
B REF: 590
49. Which of the following projections best demonstrates the C1-2 region if a patient is unable to open his or her mouth or flex/extend the neck?a. AP axial projection with CR parallel to MMLb. AP axial projection with CR parallel to AMLc. AP axial projection with CR parallel to OMLd. AP axial projection with CR parallel to IOML
ANS: A REF: 591
50. A patient enters the ED with a possible cervical spine fracture. The initial AP and lateral projections were negative for fracture. The ED physician wants a projection to demonstrate the vertebral pedicles. Which of the following projections would demonstrate these structures safely?a. AP axial projection with 35° to 40° cephalad angleb. Ottonello projectionc. Articular pillar view projectiond. AP axial projection using 45° lateromedial and 15° cephalad angle
ANS: D REF: 592
51. Focused grids are recommended for mobile chest studies.a. Trueb. False
ANS: B REF: 592
52. Ideally, the horizontal beam lateral projections for the cervical spine require a ____ source image receptor distance (SID).a. 40 to 44-inch (102 to 113-cm)b. 60 to 72-inch (153 to 183-cm)c. 96-inch (245-cm)d. 35 to 40-inch (89 to 102-cm)
ANS: B REF: 592
53. The horizontal beam lateral lumbar spine projection requires a CR position that is:a. perpendicular to the coronal plane.b. perpendicular to the image receptor.c. angled 5° to 7° cephalic.d. angled 5° to 7° caudal.
ANS: B REF: 593
54. Which of the following projections will best demonstrate an air-fluid level within the skull with the patient recumbent?a. Reverse Caldwellb. AP axialHorizontal beam lateral AP 30°
C REF: 594
55. The AP reverse Caldwell projection for a trauma skull examination requires the CR be:a. parallel to the orbitomeatal line.b. 15° cephalad to the orbitomeatal line.c. parallel to the infraorbitomeatal line.d. parallel to the lips-meatal line.
ANS: B REF: 595
56. How is the CR aligned for the acanthiomeatal (reverse Waters) projection for the facial bones?a. Perpendicular to the plane of the IRb. Parallel to the mentomeatal linec. Parallel to the lips-meatal lined. 15° cephalad angle to the orbitomeatal line
ANS: B REF: 597
57. A patient enters the ED with a possible greenstick fracture. Which age group does this type of fracture usually affect?a. Pediatricb. Young adultc. Middle-aged. Geriatric
ANS: A REF: 573
58. Subluxation is best described as a:a. dislocation of a bone from a joint.b. forced wrenching or twisting of a joint.c. partial dislocation.d. loss of alignment resulting in some deformity of a long bone.
ANS: C REF: 572
59. A patient enters the ED with a possible Monteggia fracture. Which of the following positioning routines should be performed?a. AP and lateral cervical spine projectionsb. AP and horizontal beam lateral skull projectionsc. PA and lateral thumb projectionsd. Horizontal beam PA and lateral forearm projections
ANS: D REF: 574 | 582
60. A patient enters the ED with a possible blow-out fracture involving the orbits. The patient is restricted to a backboard because of trauma. Which of the following positioning routines should be performed?a. AP 0° and horizontal beam lateral skullb. AP modified acanthioparietal and horizontal beam lateral facial bone projectionsAP 30° and axial and horizontal beam lateral skullAP acanthioparietal and horizontal beam lateral facial bone projection
B REF: 597
61. A patient enters the ED with a radial head fracture and dislocation. The ED physician orders an elbow series. The elbow is flexed near 90° and is unable to extend it farther. Which of the following positioning routines would work best for this patient?a. AP, lateral, and AP oblique-medial rotation positionsb. AP partial flexion, lateral, and trauma axiolateral (Coyle method) projectionsc. AP acute flexion, AP oblique-lateral rotation, and lateral positionsd. Axiolateral projections, AP acute flexion, and lateral positions
ANS: B REF: 582
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62. Which of the following is not an essential attribute for the surgical radiographer?a. Confidenceb. Mastery of positioning and technical conceptsc. Problem-solving skillsd. Mastery of essential nursing skills
ANS: D REF: 599
63. A health professional who prepares the operating room (OR) by supplying it with the appropriate supplies and instruments is a:a. certified surgical technologist (CST).b. circulator.c. scrub.d. surgical assistant.
ANS: A REF: 600
64. An individual who prepares the sterile field and scrubs and gowns the members of the surgical team is a:a. certified surgical technologist (CST).b. circulator.c. scrub.d. surgical assistant.
ANS: C REF: 600
65. What should a technologist do if the sterile environment is violated during a surgical procedure?a. Note the violation on the examination requisition.b. Inform the radiology supervisor.c. Notify a member of the surgical team once the procedure has been completed.d. Notify a member of the surgical team immediately.
ANS: D REF: 601
66. Which one of the following devices is best during a C-arm hip pinning procedure to protect the sterile environment?
a. Sterile towel over image intensifier
b. Sterile towel over x-ray tube
c. Shower curtain
d. Wiping down the entire C-arm with an antiseptic solution
ANS: C REF: 602
67. Asepsis is defined as a(n):
a. clean environment.
b. absence of infectious organisms.
c. sterile dressings and covers.
d. proper handwashing.
ANS: B REF: 601
68. OR tables are considered sterile only at the level of the tabletop.
a. True
b. False
ANS: A REF: 601
69. The entire sterile gown, worn by the surgeon, is considered sterile.
a. True
b. False
ANS: B REF: 601
70. Only sterile items are allowed within the sterile field.
a. True
b. False
ANS: A REF: 601
71. Shoe covers are not required in the presurgical or recovery areas.
a. True
b. False
ANS: B REF: 604
72. An aerosol cleaner should be used in cleaning the C-arm in surgery before a procedure. a. True
b. False
ANS: B REF: 604
73. Which one of the following methods will best reduce patient dosage during a fluoroscopic procedure in surgery?
a. Increase mA.
b. Use intermittent fluoro.
c. Decrease kV.
d. Place x-ray tube above patient.
ANS: B REF: 605
74. “Boost” exposures used during C-arm procedures are intended to:
a. decrease patient dose.
b. provide a road map effect.
c. increase brightness of image.
d. decrease the technologist’s dose.
ANS: C REF: 605
75. The primary clinical indication for an operative cholangiogram is:
a. biliary calculi.
b. jaundice.
c. pancreatitis.
d. hepatitis.
ANS: A REF: 606
76. When performing conventional imaging during an operative cholangiogram, the IR is placed in a special metal tray called a:
a. Smith tray.
b. Meyer’s tray.
c. cholangiogram tray.
d. “pizza pan.”
ANS: D REF: 606
77. Typically, how much contrast media is injected by the surgeon during an operative cholangiogram?
a. 1 to 2 mL
b. 6 to 8 mL
c. 10 to 12 mL
d. 15 to 20 mL
ANS: B REF: 606
78. Which of the following modifications must be made if the OR table is tilted while imaging during an operative cholangiogram using analog imaging?
a. Increase kV.
b. Decrease kV.
c. Turn grid crosswise.
d. Increase SID.
ANS: C REF: 607
79. Which one of the following structures is not typically visualized during an operative cholangiogram?
a. Hepatic ducts
b. Cystic duct
c. Common bile duct
d. Stensen duct
ANS: D REF: 607
80. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
a. It can be performed as an outpatient procedure.
b. The procedure is performed without anesthetic in radiology.
c. It is a less invasive procedure.
d. The patient can return home following procedure.
ANS: B REF: 607
81. Retrograde urography is classified as a nonfunctioning study of the urinary system.
a. True
b. False
ANS: A REF: 608
82. A laparoscope is used during the retrograde urogram.
a. True
b. False
ANS: B REF: 608
83. The urologist will withdraw the urethral catheter before imaging during a retrograde pyelogram. a. True
b. False
ANS: B REF: 608
84. The retrograde pyelogram is intended to demonstrate the collecting structures of the kidney only.
a. True
b. False
ANS: A REF: 608
85. The abbreviation ORIF refers to:
a. orthopedic reduction internal fixation.
b. open reduction internal fracture.
c. orthopedic rodding internal fixation.
d. open reduction internal fixation.
ANS: D REF: 609
86. Which of the following procedures is a nonsurgical procedure?
a. Closed reduction
b. Open reduction
c. Internal fixation
d. Intramedullary fixation
ANS: A REF: 609
87. Which one of the following devices is classified as an external fixator?
a. Intramedullary nail
b. Interbody fusion cages
c. Ilizarov device
d. Compression screw
ANS: C REF: 609
88. Which device is commonly used during a hip pinning to reduce a fracture of the proximal femur?
a. Ilizarov device
b. Intramedullary nail
c. Cannulated screw assembly
d. Kirschner wire
ANS: C REF: 610
89. What type of orthopedic fixator is commonly used to reduce midhumeral fractures?
a. Compression screw assembly
b. Intramedullary rod
c. Kirschner wire
d. Interbody fusion cage
ANS: B REF: 613
90. Arthroplasty is a formal term describing a(n):
a. internal reduction of a long bone fracture.
b. removal of damaged meniscus in the knee.
c. débridement of loose bodies in a joint.
d. total hip replacement.
ANS: D REF: 612
91. What is the newer type of prosthetic device being used for total hip replacements?
a. Austin-Moore
b. Thompson
c. Ilizarov device
d. Modular bipolar endoprosthesis
ANS: D REF: 612
92. A surgical procedure to remove a small portion of the bone that is impinging the nerve root is termed:
a. spinal fusion.
b. vertebroplasty.
c. laminectomy.
d. diskectomy.
ANS: C REF: 614
93. Which of the following devices is an alternative to traditional spinal fusion procedures? a. Harrington rods
b. Interbody fusion cage
c. Ilizarov device
d. Cortical screw
ANS: B REF: 614
94. Which one of the following procedures uses a high-powered stereoscopic microscope to provide illumination and magnification of the impinged nerve and surrounding structures? a. Laminectomy
b. Microdiskectomy
c. Arthroplasty
d. Scoliosis corrective procedure
ANS: B REF: 615
95. Which procedure may require the use of Luque or Harrington rods?
a. Arthroplasty
b. Internal reduction of long bone
c. Scoliosis corrective procedure
d. Microdiskectomy
ANS: C REF: 616
96. Which procedure introduces orthopedic cement directly into the weakened vertebrae? a. Vertebroplasty
b. Microdiskectomy
c. Spinal fusion
d. Scoliosis corrective surgery
ANS: A REF: 616
97. An orthopedic wire that tightens around a fracture site to reduce shortening of a limb is a _____ wire.
a. Kirschner
b. cancellous
c. cortical
d. cerclage
ANS: D REF: 618
98. Electrohydraulic shock wave used to break apart calcifications in the urinary system is the definition for:
a. ORIF.
b. HTO.
c. ESWL.
d. EHS.
ANS: C REF: 618
99. Soaking of moisture through a sterile or nonsterile drape, cover, or protective barrier permitting bacteria to reach sterile areas is generally termed:
a. sterile violation.
b. strike-through.
c. transmission.
d. aseptic leakage.
ANS: B REF: 618
100. In orthopedic terms, CR refers to:
a. cast removal.
b. callus reduction.
c. closed reduction.
d. cast reduction.
ANS: C REF: 618
101. An internal pacemaker implantation can be performed under local anesthetic.
a. True
b. False
ANS: A REF: 617
MATCHING
Match each of the following fractures with its alternative name or term. (Use each choice only once.)
a. Smith fracture
b. Closed fracture
c. Hickory-stick fracture
d. Mallet fracture
e. Chauffeur’s fracture
f. March fracture
g. Tripod fracture
1. Baseball fracture
2. Hutchinson’s fracture
3. Reverse Colles’ fracture
4. Simple fracture
5. Blow-out fracture
6. Greenstick fracture
7. Stress or fatigue fracture
|
1. |
ANS: D |
REF: |
574 |
|
2. |
ANS: E |
REF: |
574 |
|
3. |
ANS: A |
REF: |
574 |
|
4. |
ANS: B |
REF: |
573 |
|
5. |
ANS: G |
REF: |
575 |
|
6. |
ANS: C |
REF: |
573 |
|
7. |
ANS: F |
REF: |
575 |
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