AANP Study Guide

The first thing I want to say about the boards is some is straight forward, but most are scenarios. Read the question and specifically read the last sentence and WHAT it is exactly asking for. Take Walden BRONZE and LIVE to pull everything together and PASS!

There will be some crazy answers you can just throw out. And sometimes it will come down to 2 but there is only one correct answer. This is where you must know the foundation of the disease. For example, the scenario may be (and is on the test) that a patient returned from visiting family in north Carolina and she went hiking while she was down there, you should be thinking Rocking mountain spotted fever already or Lyme disease, then look your answers(paying NO mind to anything else in the scenario. If one of those are listed, boom that is your answer….BUT maybe the answers are antibiotics….so you must come to the conclusion it is one of the illnesses above to even know which antibiotic. In this case, both are treated with doxycycline.

Related: AANP FNP Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Topics that ARE on exam, these are from my experience, Walden review, other peers exam topics and study guides listed on here and some updated I included with it, the original document I did not own but this revision is mine. There are different versions of exams, but just as Walden states this is an “entry level” exam. You will not be picking big diagnosis , these are the common things that may present in an urgent care/ER/family practice.

1. Cranial nerves- need to know oculomotor (which ones to test) – 3,4,6 trigeminal is 5 and facial is 7(see attached face diagram, I used this on my scrap paper during test).

Cardiac

2. Know S3 & what it means. You will hear a 3rd heart sound. S3 was not an option

3. Know S4 it is a sign of what? They describe a patient. Sounds like Tennessee.

4. A murmur that is loud and heard with your scope plus thrill is 4. A loud murmur that you don’t need a scope for is 6

5. What does a grade III/VI murmur sound like? Moderately loud

6. They tell you a systolic murmur one that radiates to the neck (Aortic Stenosis) and one the radiates to the axilla (Mitral regurgitation)

7. How do you rule out AAA -Ultrasound gold standard in 65 and older especially if they smoke

8. You have a pt with HTN and osteoporosis what medication do you put them on for HTN- thiazides

9. HTN drug for DM with neuropathy- ACE or ARB

10. You have a patient that on eye exam you notice copper and silver artioles AV nicking what else do you assess them for – HTN

11. You have an elderly patient with Isolated systolic hypertension also known as

ISH(on exam) what medication do you start? CCB

12. PAD pt what is treatment- exercise

13. PAD what test- brachial index or ABI

14. Know chronic venous insuff- edema, thick skin discolored

15. Test you do for stable angina – stress test

16. Know Systolic and Diastolic Murmur was asked about heart murmur with high pitch holosystolic and the other one is mid systolic.

17. Know the difference between Peripheral Arterial Disease and Chronic Venous

Insufficiency.

18. Question about JVD causes- occlusion, stenosis, or CHF

19. Know Bacterial endocarditis (There was a pt. with gradual onset of fever, hemorrhages on  nail beds, painful raised red  nodules) Osler’s nodes and janway lesions

20. Questions about carotid bruit signs can signifies what- narrowing of the carotid

GI

21. High triglycerides increase the risk of – pancreatitis

22. You have a pt with chronic Hep C what will be high the a) AST b) ALT or c) Both

23. First line tx GERD- PPI or H2 antagonist-for this exam it will be one or the other, they wont have both

24. You have a positive psoas maneuver. This will be in a scenario- most know this means Appendicitis

25. Rovsing sign? Appendicitis

26. Pt. with GERD and Barrett’s esophagus: Refer to Oncologist (worried about cancer)

27. Question about pyloric stenosis (Hint is non bilious vomiting, olive like firm mass palpated on right upper quadrant)

28. Common causes of GERD- CCB calcium channel blockers because they open everything up

29. Increase in triglyceride can cause pancreatitis

30. First line treatment for Ellis Zollinger is PPI- unknown reason for attack of the gastric system Skin

31. What is honey crusted lesions how do you treat? Impetigo. Muprocin

32. Actinic keratosis precursor to Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SSC)- bony growth out of face chin head- Both presentation and that it is a precursor is on exam- treatment is also on there- cryotherapy

33. Rosacea (know the presentation) tx with metronidazole gel

34. How do you treat shingles – acyclovir

35. Older induration that has been there awhile what do you do? Bx it

36. Basal Cell Cancer: Waxy, pearly, telangiectasia, ulcer center lesion they will be in a scenario format- just know it is basal cell carcinoma

37. Melanoma question: Know ABCDE. Described it. Irregular, 3 different colors.

38. Subungual Hematoma tx: Make a hole and drain the blood- ON EXAM

39. Tx for moderate acne – will be case scenario that patient has tried OTC and your answer will be tetracycline

40. Review your skin issues for adult and kids. Question about Rubeola (Koplik),

41. How do you treat a skin fungal infection? clotrimazole- any med with azole in it

Peds

42. What puts a new born at high risk for hyperbilirubinemia the answer is cephalohematoma

43. Tanner stage III female

44. 14 yo boy cc of bony mass on  anterior tibial tubercle-Osgood- Schlatter

45. They describe a weak baby, doesn’t feed well sleeps a lot- it has congenital heart defect

46. ADHA question- answer is neurobiological

47. First line tx  of ADHD – SSRI

48. Coarctation of Aorta: Know that systolic BP on lower extremities is supposed to be greater or equal compared to upper extremities. In COA it will be lower. Look for weak radial and bounding femoral pulse

49. ADHD is a behavior disease

50. Most common cause of death in children. Options are a) poisoning b)Motor vehicle accident, c)drowning, and can’t remember the fourth one

51. Question about molliscum. Question described the disorder. White plug.- on infant, be thinking of sexual abuse)

52. Peds pt has sausage like mass this is what- intussusception.

53. If you have a both parents with a genetic defect what is the percentage the child will have it. 25%

54. Baby is 6 days old. Has eye discharge. What is it. STD

Psych

55. Know how an anorexia presents

56. Antipsychotics lead to risk of obesity, DM2 hyperlipidemia

57. You put a patient on zyprexa what do you monitor- BMI  and wt check every

3 months

58. The most common side effect of Paxil – erectile dysfunction. Question said man comes in complaining ejaculation problems. These are his meds. Which one is causing it?

59. You will get a young female with depression what med do you start? SSRI

60. You have an elderly female with depression what med do you start SSRI if they list celexa choose it. Has the shortest list of interactions

61. Kava Kava question- something about what not to mix it with- benzo, CNS

depressants or hypnotic

62. Which medication causes low sperm count for a patient (SSRI)

63. Question about grandiosity (Bipolar)

64. They will ask you what is MME and then they will give you a question like you are asking an elderly patient to repeat three words. What test are you doing? MME

65. A patient 77 yo is on benzo’s how do you get them off- wean them

66. Zyprexa (What lab and intervention to put in place such as weight check, DM,

67. Question about what’s the common bug in children with diarrhea.- roto virus

68. What drug do you give in an ACUTE anxiety attack? Benzos (Xanax) short term

Gero

69. You have an elderly patient that has new rapid onset of confusion what are labs to check for reversible causes? CBC, TSH, BMP  and UA (pick one with UA). The main medication that causes this is? Benadryl

70. Sensorineural (Presbycusis)- happens in older generation

71. Know types of Alzheimer’s: Question about a pt. experiencing memory loss, and increase in confusion and she has a history of stroke, HTN, What type of Alzheimer. Options include (Dementia with lewy bodies, Vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia).

Neuro

72. Your patient has essential/familial tremor what is first line treatment- propranolol

73. How do abort migraines drug? Triptans

74. Prophylactic tx migraines? Propranolol

75. They describe a pt with Trigeminal neuralgia symptoms without stating dx, how do you treat? Tegretol

76. Treatment of cluster HA high dose O2

77. Teen with dizziness and lateral gaze and returns to normal- this means what? Normal

78. Papilledema is a s/s of ICP

79. Question about Pt. complaining of worse headache of life after trauma: Options include a)post-concussion headache b)subarachnoid bleed and c)Subdural hemorrhage).

80. Question about Migraine headache: Know the description and duration of headaches as well

81. Question about CN 3,4,6 (EOM)

82. Question about Romberg test and how it’s done? Eyes must be closed.

83. Question about a pt. complaining about upper arm tremor that seems to be hereditary. What’s the treatment? options include (Xanax, lorazepam, topolol and cant rember the last one)

Legal

84. I did have a question about HIPPA. Something like sharing info to a boyfriend is an example of HIPPA violation, they throw out like beneficence and non- maleficence

Hemotology

85. Your pt has as big beefy tongue they have- B12 anemia

86. You have a pt on coumadin INR is 1.4 hx of DVT what do you do? Increase it

87. Your pt t-score is -1.5. what does that mean? Osteopenia

88. How do pt present for temporal arteritis and they ask for the gold standard? Bx of artery

89. Anemia question, Vitamin B12 deficiency, Folate. Men’s Health

90. What is the first line treatment in BPH and HTN? Hytrin-only one you

need to  know specifically

91. Look up how acute prostatitis presents they ask you how to treat it. 35 yo male doxi 100mg BID X 10 days and Rocephin 250mg. What symptoms is NP looking for to test for STI? Suprapubic pain.

STD

92. If the patient is older than 35 its not likely STD but LUTS cipro BID or Levo

4-6 weeks

93. They describe a patient with BV symptoms and clue cells seen. What is it?

treat with Flagyl 500mg Bid X 7 days. Do not drink ETOH

94. They tell you your patient has strawberry cervix with green discharge. How do you treat? Flagyl

95. If you treat gonorrhea you also treat what? And how? Chlamydia (Rocephin and Azith)

96. If you have an HIV pt with a TB test that reads 5mm they ARE considered positive

97. They describe a pt with papular, non itchy lesion to palms and soles of feet, what lab do you draw? RPR (Syphillis)

98. How to tx genital warts TCA trichloroacetic if prego

99. Question about chlamydia what drug you give

100. Question about genital wart tx

101. Question about treating HIV pt. with antiviral and CD4 count still less than

200. What should NP tell the pt he is qualified to be diagnosed with AIDS

according to CDC

Women’s Health

102. Know the difference between probable, possible and positive signs of pregnancy. Leik book

103. Naegeles rule

104. I had a pregnant patient in her 3rd trimester painfull vaginal bleeding- what is that how do you treat? Abruption, c-section.

105. Same as above but painless. What is it and how to tx? Placenta previa. C- section as well

106. What abx do you give a preg pt for UTI answer is nitrofuration/Macrobid

107. Question about contraceptive pills mini pill is ok for smoker??? If under 35 no other risks

108. Question about a pt. pap’s smear noted with Low Grade Squamous Intraepithelial Lesions and High Grade Squamous Epithelia Lesion noted on the report, what should NP do? referring for colposcopy,

109. Question about NP palpating right ovaries on a 1-year postmenopausal woman. Answer is to r/o ovarian cancer start with US

110. Another question about who is at high risk for ovarian cancer? Patient with a family history

111. High risk for ectopic pregnancy: Salpingitis

112. Preeclampsia tx bed rest, laying on her side and

113. Question about a pregnant female at slightly above symphysis pubic and Fundal height is 23cm (above the umbilical. What should be done (I picked to have Ultrasound done to)

114. Coombs test= Detects presence of RH antibodies

115. Ovarian CA risk. options are a) multipara b)family history and smoking).

116. What test needed to differentiate lesion/cyst found on a breast? Ultrasound

Pulm

117. Asthma first line treatment? SABA

118. They describe a pt with TB- fatigue fever cough upper lobe infiltrates on Xray

119. What causes the greatest increase in RR? hypercapnia

120. You suspect sleep apnea which includes everything but -obesity, enlarge tonsils, macrognathia or microglossia

121. RML CXR- Tuberculosis

122. Acute bronchitis description. Do not treat with what? Antibiotics

123. Croup/Epiglottitis: Question about what condition would make you order Lateral X-ray of the neck. Options include: Drooling, Unable to do ROM of the neck / stiff neck.

124. Question about CURBS: Which of the options does not require hospitalization for pneumonia Review CURBS: It’s a criteria for pneumonia hospital admission

125. Which among the list can cause increase in respiration. Options include a)low oxygen b)high oxygen c)hypercapnia or d)hypocapnia

HEENT

126. What is the most common pathogen of otitis externa and how to treat

127. Weber test- lateralization to only one ear is abnormal

128. They describe a bilateral allergic conjunctivitis

129. Retinoblastoma- look up all SS of this and what it means. Google it for an advance search they do not give you basis info

130. Question about AV nicking. What does NP assess for? HTN.

131. Question causes of IOP

132. Question about horizontal nystagmus that stops when eye is close to midline in a college student its normal

133. Weber/Rhinne Test

134. Question about someone eating, painful lump noted on the jaw that comes and go. Options include , sialolithiasis – also Caculi or salivary stones”, is a condition where a calcified mass or silaolith forms within a salivary gland usually in the duct of the sub mandibular gland also term Wharton’s DUCT -

Orthopedic- know them all

135. Treatment for mild ankle sprain RICE